1- DAV Public School Class 8th Resources: Utlisation and development Solutions
Something to do.
A. Tickmark (✓) the correct option.
1. Future generations will depend on solar energy because it is
Answer 1 :- (c) inexhaustible
2. Which one of the following resources can be recycled?
Answer 2 :- (a) gold
3. All the abiotic resources include-
Answer 3 :- (b) non-living things
4. Available resources which are not being tapped fully, for the time being, are called
Answer 4 :- (d) potential resources
5. Which one does not promote the conservation of resources?
Answer 5 :- (c) use as much resources as required.
B. Fill in the blanks with right answer. .
1. Metal can be used again and again after processing.
2. On the basis of occurrence, resources are classified into two categories natural and man made.
3. With advancement of technology availability of capital and skilled labour are necessary for resource utilisation.
4. Developed countries are economically self-sufficient and technically advanced.
5. The potential resources need a detailed survey for estimating their quantity and quality.
C. Write a technical term or an appropriate word for each of the following statements.
Q1. Any material which is used to satisfy human needs. —Resource
Q2. Resources which cannot be renewed.————–Non-renewable resources
Q3. Resources which are created by human beings.——Man-made resources
Q4. The resource which are surveyed and developed.—–Actual resources
Q5. Sustainable and optimum utilisation of resources.—-Conservation
D. Answer the following Questions:
1. ‘Utility and value of a resource vary from time to time and place’. Give any three examples to support the statement.
Ans 1: Earlier human civilizations florist along the river valleys as they are used water for irrigating fields. Now, human beings are using water for generating energy, irrigation, navigation, and industries, etc. Chile and the United States of America are generating more wind energy than India.
2. Why human being considered the most important resource for development?
Ans 2: Human being are considered the most important resource for development because of the following reasons:
1. Human Beings can use their innovative mind to create more resources from nature.
2. Utility of any natural occurring substances can only be realized by humans.
3. Resources are of no value as it can’t become useful on their own.
3. Differentiate between biotic and abiotic resources. Give examples for each.
Answer 3 :- (i) Biotic resources: The resources are obtained from the biosphere and have life. For example, birds, animals, etc.
(ii) Abiotic resources: These resources are non-living. For example, land, air, minerals, etc.
4. Why is there a need for resource planning? Give any three reasons.
Answer 4 :- There is a need for resource planning because
(i) Resources are limited in supply but their demand is increasing day by day due to many factors such as increasing population, industrialization.
(ii) Resource planning helps us in identifying the availability of the resources and finding an alternative way to use renewable resources more efficiently, effectively, and economically.
(iii) It helps in reducing the wastage of resources.
5. Mention any six factors on which the utilization of resources depends.
Answer 5 :- The utilisation of resources depends upon various factors:
(i) Availability of resources
(ii) Availability of capital
(iii) Availability of Water
(iv) Advancement of technology
(v) Availability of transport
(vi) Human Skill
E. Answer the following questions.
1. Human needs and wants are neither uniform in all parts of the world nor static over the year.” Explain the statement by giving suitable examples.
Answer 1 :- (i) It is a fact that human needs and wants are neither uniform in all parts of the world nor static over the years. They generally grow and become complete with the process of change in society.
(ii) In ancient times, emphasis was mainly given to satisfying basic needs, such as food, clothing and shelter which were derived from the natural environment.
(iii) In advanced societies, greater emphasis has been given to the utilization of resources for satisfying the needs of human beings. (iv) Earlier human civilization flourished along river valleys as they used water for irrigation we now use water for irrigation, navigation, generating electricity
2. Distinguish between renewable and non-renewable resources. Which one of the two would you prefer to use and why?
Ans 2: Resources that can be renewed either naturally or by human efforts are called renewable resources. Eg: Solarenergy,Windenergy,etc.
Renewable resources are also called inexhaustible resources.
Resources that can be used again and again and has no limit are known as non renewable resources. Eg- Oil,Coal,etc.
NonRenewable resources are also called exhaustible resources.
I would prefer renewable resources because it will reduce dependency on the conservation of nonrenewable resources.
3. What is meant by sustainable development? Why is sustainable development the need of the hour?
Answer 3 :- Sustainable development means development that takes place without damaging the environment. It is the need of the hour, because of our resources are limited in their supply. Over-use of many valuable resources has led to their degradation or deterioration in quality, for example, soil, land and water resources. Therefore, resources should be utilised judiciously so that after fulfilling our present requirement, they are also conserved for the future generations.
4. Describe the various basis of classification of resources with the help of examples.
Answer 4 :- Classification of resources is done on the basis of (a) Renewability (b) Origin (c) Occurrence (d) Development
(a) On the basis of renewability resources are of two types:
(i) Renewable or inexhaustible resources: These resources can. be renewed either naturally or by human effects. For example, solar energy, air and water.
(ii) Non-renewable or exhaustible resources: These resources take millions of years to be renewed. For example, energy resources such as coal, potroleum, etc.
(b) On the basis of origin resources are classified into:
(i) Biotic resources: The resources are obtained from biosphere and have life. For example, birds, animals, etc.
(ii) Abiotic resources: These resources are non-living. For example, land, minerals, etc.
(c) On the basis of occurrence resources are classified into:
(i) Natural resources: These resources are available from the nature in the form of water, minerals, forests, etc. and used by human beings to satisfy their needs.
(ii) Man-made resources: These resources are created by human beings to satisfy their needs. For example, roads, machines, etc.
(d) On the basis of level of development of resources, we have two types of resources:
(i) Actual resources: These resources have been thoroughly surveyed and their quantities are ascestained. For example, Saudi Arabia has 25.9 per cent of the world’s oil reserved.
(ii) Potential resources: These resources are those whose utility is not known at present or those which are not used despite having utility; instead they may be useful at some time in future. For example, uranium deposits in Ladakh.
2- DAV Public School Class 8th Natural Resources:Land, Soil and Water Solutions
Something to do.
A. Tickmark (✓) the correct option.
1. Which type of erosion leads to desertification?
Answer:- (a) soil erosion
2. Which one of the following is suitable for restoring soil fertility?
Answer:- (b) contour ploughing
3. Which of the following is not in favour of multipurpose river valley projects?
Answer:- (c) large scale displacement of people
4. Maintenance of lakes and ponds is essential for—
Answer:- (b) increasing water table
5. Which factor is more responsible for the quick formation of soil in Rajasthan?
Answer:- (c) extreme difference in day and night temperature
Answer:- 1. (a), 2. (b), 3. (c), 4. (b), 5. (c)
B. Fill in the blanks with right answer. .
1. Earth’s surface is divided into land and water zones.
2. To maintain ecological balance, 33 % of the land should be under forest.
3. Planting of trees is commonly known as afforestation.
4. The main source of fresh water is rainfall.
Earth is known as blue planet due to the presence of water on it.
C. Write a technical term or an appropriate word for each of the following statements.
1. It is formed by decomposed parts of plants and animals. ———–> humus
2. The original rock from which the soil is formed. ——————-> Parent rock
3. It is formed as a result of long continued weathering process of rocks. –> Soil
4. A project which serves various purposes at the same time. ———–> Multipurpose River Valley Project
5. The process in which the top layer of the soil is removed by the natural and human activities. —-> Soil erosion
D. Answer the following Questions in brief:-
1. Why is soil considered an important resource? Give any these reasons.
Answer 1 :- Soil is considered an important resource because
(i) Agricultural production is mainly dependent upon the fertility of soil.
(ii) Animals also depend upon the soil to satisfy their basic needs as soil gives nutrients to plants.
(iii) It is also used for making bricks and pottery.
2. Highlight any three causes of soil erosion.
Answer 2 :- The causes of soil erosion include both human and natural activities. Natural agencies such as water, wind, glacier, etc. cause soil erosion. But at the same time, mankind’s unwise actions such as deforestation, over-grazing and mining are also responsible for soil erosion. It has been observed that the fertility of soil is severely damaged by soil erosion.
3. Explain hydrological cycle with the help of a diagram.
Answer 3 :- The main source of freshwater is rainfall. This rainwater continuously gets recycled in nature through evaporation, condensation, and precipitation. This process is called the hydrological cycle.
4.How does river water get polluted? Explain.
Answer 4 :- River water gets polluted as the untreated industrial waste and urban waste is dumped into them. This makes the river water unsuitable for consumption. It also disturbs the ecosystem.
5. Identify any three ecological problems caused by building large dams.
Answer 5 :- (i) Extensive forests get submerged underwater.
(ii) River water gets diverted.
(iii) Aquatic life gets affected.
E. Answer the following questions.
1. Explain any five factors which are responsible for the formation of soil.
Answer 1 :- The five factors responsible for soil formation are:
(i) Parent rock: The original rock, from which soul is formed by the process of weathering is known as the parent rock. It determines colour, texture, chemical, properties, mineral, content and permeability of the soil. For example, the black soil of India is derived from the lava rock.
(ii) Topography: The location of a soil on a landscape can affect how the climate processes affect it. Variations in the relief, such as mountains, plains and plateaus determine the thickness of the soil. For example, the northern plains have thick soil cover than the Himalayas. Even within mountains, river valleys have thick soil cover.
(iii Climate: Climatic factors like temperature and rainfall affect the soil formation. In the areas of high rainfall and extreme temperature, rocks are easily weathered which affects the soil formation.
(iv) The Vegetation Cover: Cracks disintegrate into smaller pieces and help in the soil formations. Remains of dead or decomposed plants and animals provide humus to the soil, which enriches the fertility of the soil.
(v) Time: It takes thousands of years to develop a very thin layer of soil on the earth’s surface. Example; the Nile Delta and delta formed by the Ganga and Brahmaputra rivers have very deep and fertile soil.
2. What is meant by land use pattern? Why is it important to study the land use pattern? List the factors influencing the utilisation of land.
Answer 2 :- The use of land for various purposes such as for cultivation of crops, the building of houses, roads, railways, grazing of animals, etc. is commonly known as land use pattern. It is important to study the land use pattern because the percentage of land used for various purposes varies from one region to another. The utilisation of land is determined by the continuous interplay of the physical factors, such as relief, soil, climatic conditions, mineral resources, etc., and the human factors like the density of population and the technological and social requirements of the people.
3. What are Multipurpose River Valley Projects? Name any two such projects. List the main objectives of a multipurpose river valley project.
Answer 3 :- Multipurpose River Valley Projects are large scale hydro projects which have been developed all over the world to utilise water. Under them, a dam or series of dams are constructed across the river for storing water.
Two multipurpose river valley projects—
(a) Hirakud
(b) Bhakra Nangal
A multipurpose river valley serves many objectives at the same time. The stored water is used for several purposes, such as providing irrigation, generating hydroelectricity, afforestation, controlling floods, navigation, etc
4. Suggest any five steps to conserve soil.
Answer 4 :- Soil is an important natural resource. Therefore, its conservation must be given top priority. Various methods of soil conservation are:
(i) Afforestation: It is the process of planting more trees and seeds on land. It reduces the surface runoff and kinds the soil.
(ii) Shelter belts: Rows of trees are planted in desert regions to protect the fields from wind erosion.
(iii) Rock dams: This prevents gullies and further soil loss since rocks are piled up to slow down the flow of water.
(iv) Terrace farming: Terrace farming should be encouraged across the hill slope. Terraces reduce run-off and soil erosion.
(v) Contour ploughing: Ploughing parallel to the contours of a hill slope to form a natural barrier for water to flow down a slope is called contour ploughing.
(vi) Overgrazing by animals like sheep and goats must be checked. Fodder crops should be raised. The free movement of animals in the fields should be restricted.
(vii) Reckless cutting of trees should be checked.
5. Suggest any five methods for the conservation of water.
Answer 5 :- Water is an indispensable resource of life. We cannot imagine life in its absence. The sources of water are limited and are reducing every year. Therefore, its conservation is essential. Various methods of water conservation are given below:
(i) Rainwater harvesting: It is a method of collecting water while it rains so that it may come of use in the future.
(ii) Improving underground storage: The surface run-off can be mini-mised by having vegetation cover to improve underground storage.
(iii) Making dams across the rivers: The rainwater can be impounded by making dams across the rivers.
(iv) Drip irrigation system: Water can be saved by adopting modern methods of irrigation, such as drip or trickle irrigation techniue and sprinkler method of irrigation.
(v) The demand of water for industries can be met by the recycled water.
(vi) The domestic demand can also be reduced by using modern method of recycling. The already used water can be reused for watering plants, flushing toilets.
(vii) Maintenance of lakes and ponds also helps in increasing the water table of underground water.
(viii) Water can be conserved by educating and sensitising people towards the urgent need to conserve water so that they do not waste fresh water.
3- DAV Public School Class 8th Natural Resources: Vegetation and Wildlife Solutions
DAV Public School Class 8th | Chapter 3 | Natural Resources: Vegetation and Wildlife Solutions
Something to Know
A. Tickmark (✓) the correct option.
1. Which term is used for the plant community which grows without human interference?
Answer:- (b) natural vegetation
2. Which vegetation grows in hot and humid regions of the world?
Answer:- (b) Tropical Deciduous Forests
3. The most common trees of Tropical Deciduous Forests are—
Answer:- (b) sal and teak
4. Trees of Mediterranean Forests have —
Answer:- (c) spiny and waxy leaves
5. The area under forests is depleting due to—
Answer:- (b) human interference
Answer:- 1. (b), 2. (b), 3. (b), 4. (c), 5. (b)
B. Fill in the blanks with right answer. .
1. The assemblage of plant species in an environment is known as natural vegetation.
2. Temperature and rainfall are two important factors for the plant growth.
3. Humus helps to maintain fertility of the soil.
4. Hardwood trees have broad leaves to permit transpiration of surplus moisture.
5. Teak is the commercially important tree of the monsoon forests.
Answer:- 1. natural vegetation 2. Temperature, rainfall 3. fertility 4. transpiration, 5. monsoon
C. Write a technical term or an appropriate word for each of the following statements.
1. The forests which do not shed all their leaves at the same time. —->Tropical Deciduous Forests
2. In this forest, summers are dry and moderate rain falls in winter. —–> Mediterranean Forests
3. Conical shaped trees are common in these forests. —–> Temperate Softwood Forests
4. The act or process of creating new forests by planting saplings. —-> Afforestation
5. The Temperate Softwood Forests found in the southern slopes of Himalayas. —-> Mountain Forests
Answer:- 1. Tropical Deciduous Forests 2. Mediterranean Forests 3. Temperate Software Forests 4. Afforestation 5. Mountain Forests
D. Answer the following Questions in brief:-
1. Why are the Tropical Rain Forests known as evergreen forests?
Answer 1 :- All the trees of these forests do not shed their leaves at the same time. Hence, the forests always appear green. That is why, such forests are known as evergreen forests.
2. Why do the Tropical Deciduous Forests shed their leaves during the summer season? Name two such trees.
Answer 2 :- The Tropical Deciduous Forests shed their leaves during the summer season to conserve moisture. Trees—Sal, Teak
3. Write any three characteristic features of the trees found in Mediterranean Forests.
Answer 3 :- The features of these forests are:
(i) Trees of these forests are widely scattered and have spiny, waxy, small and leathery textured leaves.
(ii) They have long roots and thick bark. As a result of this, trees are able to retain moisture in the dry summer season.
(iii) The important trees of these forests are corcle, olive and citrus fruit trees.
(iv) The animals commonly found in these forests are golden jackal, mouflon, bezoar goat, aardwolf and Mediterranean gecko.
4. Distinguish between a national park and a wildlife sanctuary.
Answer 4 :- National Park: A national park is a well-defined area for the protection of wildlife. Visitors can only visit the park. No one has a right to use any forest products. Collection of firewood, timber from any part of the forest is totally prohibited.
Wildlife Sanctuary: It is a declared protected area in which limited human activities are permitted. Hunting of animals and cutting of trees are banned.
5. Suggest any three important measures for the protection of forests.
Answer 5 :- Forests are very important for the survival of life on the earth. Hence, their conservation must be given top priority. Following measures can be taken in this regard:
(i) Afforestation or large scale plantation of trees should be encouraged.
(ii) ‘Each one plant one’ policy should be adopted.
(iii) Efficient utilisation of forests products and usage of substitutes of wood.
(iv) Enforcement of a number of laws/ guidelines to protect and prohibit deforestation.
(v) Discouraging shifting cultivation which causes forest loss. (any three)
E. Answer the following questions.
1. What is meant by natural vegetation? How do temperature and rainfall affect its distribution? Explain with examples.
Answer 1 :- The assemblage of plant species in an environment is known as natural vegetation. Temperature and rainfall are two important factors for the growth of plants. In the areas where rainfall is heavy, the forests are thick and dense. As the rainfall decreases, the size and concentration of trees also reduce. Shrubs and short trees are common in the areas of low rainfall or in desert areas. In cold regions, the growing season is very short. Therefore, plants occur in scattered patches in the form of mosses and lichens.
2. Highlight any five points of distinction between Tropical Deciduous Forests and Coniferous Forests.
Answer 2 :-
3. ‘Forests are essential for maintaining an ecological balance.’ Justify the statement with suitable arguments.
Answer 3 :- Animals, such as birds, fishes and animals, make forests as their natural habitat. It is the most important part of the natural ecosystem. Wildlife varies from place to place due to climatic variations. For example, in India, there is a rich variety of birds and animals. The blackbuck, peacock, lion and Bengal tiger are found in India. Australia is famous for koala bears, emu and kookaburra. Wildlife is very essential to maintain the ecological balance on the earth’s surface. Wildlife is important for its aesthetic values and ecological balance. The beauty of wild animals boosts tourism and creates jobs for the people. Animals’ behaviour changes at the time of natural disasters like tsunamis and earthquakes. If this information can be harnessed for imparting an early warning system, then life of lots of people can be saved. Dead and decaying plants and animals also produce humus, which is helpful to maintain the fertility of the soil.
4. Explain the importance of wildlife.
Answer 4 :- (i) All forms of wildlife are an integral part of our ecosystem. They help in maintaining the ecological balance on the earth’s surface.
(ii) Dead and decaying plants and animals produce humus, which is helpful to maintain the fertility of the soil.
(iii) Birds like vultures are scavengers and they help in cleansing the environment.
5. How are human beings responsible for the depletion of vegetation and wildlife?
Answer 5 :- (i) In various parts of the world, wild animals are hunted for various purposes like meat, skin, horns, etc. This disturbs the ecological balance of the environment.
(ii) Rapid rise in population has placed huge demands on various uses of the land to meet human needs like agriculture, habitations, industries, roads, etc. It has led to deforestation on a large scale. Deforestation has also led to the loss of natural habitats, plants and animals.
(iii) Pollution results in climate change and global warming which in turn cause damage to forest resources on account of localisation and tolerance to heat intensity. It also poses a serious threat to wildlife.
DAV Public School Class 8th Mineral and Energy Resources Social Science Solutions
DAV Public School Class 8th Mineral and Energy Resources Social Science Question and Answers
Something to do.
A. Tickmark (√) the correct option .
1. Which one of the following is not a characteristic of rocks?
Answer 1 :- (b) These have a definite mineral composition.
2. Which one of the following is the best quality of coal?
Answer 2 :- (c) Anthracite
3. The major oilfields of India are located in which one of the following states of india?
Answer 3 :- (a) Assam
4. The metallic minerals used in electrical industry are –
Answer 4 :- (b) iron and Copper
5. Petroleum is not extracted from the oilfields of North Sea by
Answer 5 :- (d) Sweden
B. Fill in the blanks with right answer.
1. A mineral is extracted from the region where its concentration is high.
2. Metallic minerals are divided into ferrous and non-ferrous.
3. Aluminium is obtained from bauxite ore.
4. Petroleum, coal, natural gas and hydroelectricity are conventional sources of energy.
5. Haematite and Magnetite are the major types of iron ore.
C. Write a technical term or an appropriate word for each of the following statement :
1. Energy generated by turbines run by water falling from a height.
Ans) Hydroelectric Power
2. The resultant metal with improved strength which is produced by mixing two or more than two metals.
Ans) Alloy
3. Materials formed inside the earth by the decomposition of dead remains of plants and animals in sedimentary rocks.
Ans) Fossil Fuels
4. Mineral deposits are formed when a river erodes rock constituents from a primary source and deposits them in the river beds.
Ans) Placer deposits
5. The process of extracting minerals from the earth’s crust.
Ans) Mining
D. Answer the following Questions in brief:-
1. What is mineral? Mention the three main processes of mineral extraction.
Answer:- All rocks contain crystals of naturally occuring chemicals called minerals.
2. What is tidal energy? How can it be harnessed?
Answer:- Energy generated from tides is called tidal energy. It can be harnessed by building dams at narrow openings of the sea.
3. Why do we need to conserve mineral resources? Explain any three reasons.
Answer 3 :- We need to conserve mineral resources because of the following reasons: (i) Minerals are exhaustible resources. These resources are limited and unevenly distributed. (a) Per head consumption of minerals is higher in developed countries as compared to the developing countries. (iii) Industry and agriculture strongly depend upon mineral deposits and the substances manufactured from them. (iv) We are rapidly consuming mineral resources that required millions of years to be created and concentrated. (v) The geological processes of mineral extraction are so slow that the rates of replacement are infinitely small in comparison to the present rates of consumption.
4. What are two types of energy sources? Which one of them is a better resource and why?
Answer 4 :- Conventional and non-conventional are two types of energy sources. Non-conventional sources are better resources because they are renewable resources. They are less expensive to install and easy to maintain. These do source not cause air pollution and are largely eco-friendly.
5. Highlight any three advantages of using nuclear energy.
Answer 5 :- (i) Nuclear energy is very powerful and efficient resource than other alternative energy sources.
(ii) It is an alternative to fossil fuels and can reduce the emission of the greenhouse gases.
(iii) The cost of nuclear fuel (overall uranium) is 20 percent of the cost of energy generated.
E. Answer the following questions.
1. How are minerals useful to us? Explain with the help of examples.
Answer 1 :- In the modern world, minerals provide the basis for industrial development of a country. From the smallest objects like pins and nails to huge ships and aircraft, all are made of minerals. Minerals that are used for gems are usually hard. These are then set in various styles for jewellery. Copper is another metal used in everything from coins to pipes. Silicon, used in the computer industry is obtained from quartz. Aluminium obtained from its ore bauxite is used in automobiles and aeroplanes, bottling industry, buildings and even in kitchen cookware.
2. In your opinion, electricity is a boon or a bane? Support your answer with relevant arguments.
Answer 2 :- People use electricity for lighting, heating, cooling and operating appliances, computers, electronics, machinery and vehicles. The water discharged after the generation of electricity is used for irrigation. One-fourth of the world’s electricity is produced by hydel power. To generate hydroelectricity, large dams are needed. At the initial stage, it required high technology and huge capital investment. Resistance to large dams has been primarily due to the large-scale displacement of local communities. Local people often have to give up their land and livelihood.
3. What is meant by nuclear energy? Explain the progress made by India in this field.
Answer:- Nuclear energy is obtained from power stored in the nuclei of atoms of naturally occurring radioactive elements like uranium and thorium. Major nuclear power stations in India are located at Kaiga in Karnataka, Kalpakkam and Kudunkulam in Tamil Nadu, Narora in U.P., Ranapratap Sagar near Kota in Rajashthan, Tarapur in Maharashtra and Kakrapar in Gujarat.
4. Assess the importance of petroleum on the basis of its wide range of applications.
Answer 4 :- Petroleum is widely used as a source of power. Petrol and kerosene oil are the by-products of Petroleum/ Mineral oil. As an industrial power, it is widely used to run machines, generate electricity and produce steam. Railway engines, motor vehicles and ships depend on it for their fuel requirements. It is used as a lubricant in machines and petrochemical industries for preparing rubber, synthetic, fibres, etc.
5. Suggest any five measures to conserve minerals and energy resources.
Answer 5 :- Following measures can be taken to conserve minerals:
• Many metals like iron, gold, silver and aluminium, once discarded, can be reused by recycling.
• Efficient methods of mining and smelting can avoid wastage of minerals. While using them also we should take care not to waste.
• Alternatives to minerals like biodegradable plastic, wood and other substitutes should be more widely used.
Following measures can be taken to conserve energy resources:
(i) Use of non-conventional sources of energy, i.e., solar light, solar torch, solar geyser, etc.
(ii) Use of CFL bulbs and tubelights.
(iii) Switch off the light and fans when not in use.
(iv) Dry clothes in sunlight instead of electric dryers to prevent emissions and unnecessary use of electricity.
(v) Use public transport.
(vi) Use of automatic electronic power saver. It saves approximately 30% electricity bill.
DAV Public School Class 8th Agriculture Social Science Solutions
DAV Public School Class 8th Agriculture Social Science Question and Answers
Something to do.
A. Tickmark (✓) the correct option .
1. Millets are also known as –
Ans ) (d) coarse grains
2. Tea is a –
Ans) (d) beverage crop
3. Who amongst the following are the nomadic herders of the Himalayan area?
Ans) (a) Bhotiyas
4. Slash and burn practice of agriculture is also known as –
Ans) (c) shifting agriculture
5. The type of commercial agriculture, which is practised on a large estate for growing of a single crop continuously for several years, is known as –
Ans) (c) plantation agriculture
B. Fill in the blanks with right answer.
1. Wheat is grown in the mid-latitudinal and dry subtropical regions.
2. Cotton, Jute and natural silk are natural fibres.
3. Coffee plant needs hot and humid climate.
4. Deltas, river valleys, coastal plains with rainfall above 100 cm are ideal for the cultivation of rice.
5. When animals are reared along with the cultivation of land, it is known as mixed farming.
C. Write a technical term or an appropriate word for each of the following statement :
1. The science and art of raising crops. rearing of livestock, forestry and fishing.
Ans) Agriculture
2. A type of agricultural system in which a farmer and his family grow crop for self-sustenance.
Ans) Subsistence agriculture
3. Agriculture practised on a very large scale for crop specialisation.
Ans) Commercial agriculture
4. The commercial grazing of farm animals in temperate grasslands to obtain meat, wool, hides, skins and some dairy products.
Ans) Livestock ranching
5. People who migrate along with their animals from one place to another in search of fodder for their animals.
Ans) Nomads
D. Answer the following Questions in brief:-
1. When and how did agriculture start along the river valleys? What is the wider definition of agriculture now?
Answer 1 :- The requirement for food has led to the development of agriculture. Earlier, human beings were dependent upon food gathering, hunting and fishing for their survival. Gradually, they started growing crops along the river valleys which led to the beginning of agriculture. In wider terms, agriculture is the science and art of raising crops, rearing livestock, forestry and fishing.
2. Highlight the importance of agriculture for people around the world.
Answer 2 :- Agriculture helps in providing employment, eradicating poverty, enhancing trade and earning foreign exchange. Agriculture also plays an important role in strengthening global relations by encouraging the international trade of agricultural products.
3. Describe any three new techniques used in agriculture to increase the production of crops.
Answer 3 :- New techniques of agriculture include using HYV of seeds, fertilisers, pesticides, insecticides and modern equipment.
4. What type of soil, temperature and rainfall is required for the cultivation of wheat and rice?
Answer 4 :- Wheat
Soil type: Loamy soil is required.
Temperature: The ideal temperature for wheat at the time for sowing is 10°-15°C and at the time of harvesting is 20°-25°C.
Rainfall: It grows well in 75-100 cm of rainfall. The harvest period should be frost-free.
Rice
Soil type: Alluvial loamy and clayey soils are ideal for rice cultivation.
Temperature: 24°C or above with minor variations during sowing, growing and harvesting seasons.
Rainfall: Rice flourishes well in areas where rainfall is above 100 cm.
5. What is meant by nomadic herding? Which are the most important regions for nomadic herding?
Answer:- In nomadic herding, people migrate along with their animals from one place to another in search of fodder for their animals. Generally, they rear cattle, sheep, goats, camels and yaks for milk, skin, meat and wool. It is common in parts of Central and Western Asia, East and South-West Africa and Northern Eurasia. In India, Bhotiyas and Gujjars are the nomadic tribes of Himalays.
E. Answer the following questions.
1. What are the major differences between the farm agriculture of USA and India?
Answer:- The agricultural practices of the USA and India sharply differ from one another. These differences are given below:
2. Describe any five advantages of using biotechnology for agricultural development.
Answer 2 :- (i) Biotechnology involves the use of living organisms and bio-processes in engineering, technology, medicine, etc.
(ii) It also covers genetic engineering, cell and tissue, culture technologies, manufacture of drugs, environmental management, etc.
(iii) Some countries have developed genetically modified crops through biotechnology. In this, higher yields are produced by introducing foreign genes from different species.
(iv) It has more nutritional value, better flavour and colour in the food.
(v) Using these genetically modified crops is still limited. Scientists believe that genetically modified crops can help the environment by reducing the problem of pesticides.
3. Explain any three physical factors influencing the agricultural development in an area.
Answer 3 :- Three physical factors which affect agricultural development in an area are:
(a) Physical or geographical factors include relief, climate and soul.
(i) Relief: Plains are more suitable for agriculture than the highlands. The density of population is generally high in plains. This helps in providing cheap labour and a market for farm products. Also, it is easier to use modern equipment in plain regions. On rugged topography, such machines cannot be easily used. The river basins and deltas are more suitable for agriculture than mountainous regions.
(ii) Climate: Agriculture is highly sensitive to climate variability. Each crop has its own requirement of temperature and rainfall. That is why the variation in climatic conditions supports different crop patterns.
(iii) Soil: Soil rich in minerals and organic matter supports agriculture. The chemical composition and fertility of soil differ from place to place which leads to variation in soil type. Each crop has its own requirement of soil. According to the soil type, a large variety of crops are grown in different parts of the world. Alluvial soil and black soil are very suitable for agriculture.
4. How is subsistence agriculture difference from the commercial agriculture? In your opinion, which one is more useful for India?
Commercial agriculture is more useful for India because it is always done with defined crops, technology and marketing prospects.
5. How do the size of land holdings, labour and capital influence the agricultural development in an area? Explain.
Answer 5 :- Size of land holdings: The size of farms affects the agricultural pattern and the yield per unit hectare. In the densely populated areas of the developing countries, the farm size is generally very small due to growing rural population and the law of succession which leads to fragmentation of land. The small fields are mostly not economical.
Labour: The availability of labour has a great influence on the cropping pattern of a region. The labour requirement varies with different crops. In many parts of India, seasonal unemployment exists in rural areas, whereas during the periods of sowing and harvesting, there could be a shortage of labour. The farmers of Punjab greatly depend on migrant labourers for growing wheat and rice crops.
Capital: All agricultural inputs, like the HYV seeds, means of irrigation, fertilisers, pesticides, hiring labour, machines, land lease, fodder, fuel, power and veterinary services, require capital. The cultivation of commercial crops using new technologies requires more capital than required in the traditional way of cultivation.
DAV Public School Class 8th Manufacturing Industries Social Science Solutions
DAV Public School Class 8th Manufacturing Industries Social Science Question and Answers
Something to do.
A. Tickmark (✓) the correct option:
1. The largest industry of India in terms of employment is—
Answer:- (d) information technology
2. Which one of the following industries helps in the manufacturing of electronic goods
Answer:- (b) aluminium
3. Jamshedpur is known for which type of activities?
Answer:- (d) industrial
4. Which industry is known as the backbone of modern civilization?
Answer:- (d) iron and steel industry
5. The first modern Iron and Steel company to be established in India was—
Answer:- (a) TISCO
B. Fill in the blanks with right answer. .
1. The conversion of raw material into more useful products with the help of machines is defined as Manufacturing.
2. On the basis of the size manufacturing industry is classified into cottage industry, small scale industry, and large scale industry.
3. Industry whose finished products are used as raw material is called a basic industry.
4. Clustering of industries in a particular area is defined as industrial region.
5. Semi-conductor chips in a computer process, store, disseminate and information.
C. Write True or False for the following statements.
D. Answer the following Questions in brief:-
1. How can we measure the economic development of a country? Explain.
Answer 1 :- The economic development of a country can be measured by its per capita income, literacy rate, health status, infant mortality rate and life expectancy of persons living in that country.
2. What are the basis on which the industries can be classified? Give at least two examples for each.
Answer 2 :- The industries can be classified on the basis of their size, nature of finished products, sources of raw material and their ownership. For example
Size -Small Scale, Large Scale
Nature of finished products-basic, consumer
Source of Raw Material-• Agro-based, Forest Based, Animal-Based, Mineral Based
Ownership-Public sector, private Sector, Joint Sector, Cooperative Sector
3. State any three non-gerogrpahical factros that affect the location of an industry.
Answer 3 :- Three non-geographical factors include capital, management and labour.
4. Name any five industrial regions of India.
Answer 4 :- (i) Mumbai-Pune region
(ii) Hugli region
(iii) Bengaluru-Tamil Nadu region
(iv) Chotanagpur region
(v) Vishakapatnam-Guntur region.
5. Differentiate between private sector and public sector.
Answer 5 :-
E. Answer the following questions.
1. Why is cotton textile industry largely concentrated in Gujarat and Maharashtra? Explain any five reasons
Answer 1 :- Cotton textile industries are largely concentrated in Gujarat and Maharashtra because of the following reasons:
(i) Availability of raw cotton
(ii) Humid climate
(iii) Proximity to market
(iv) Developed means of transport including accessible port facilities
(v) Availability of cheap labour
2. State the factors which have helped in the development of IT industry in Bengaluru.
Answer 2 :- The various factors which have helped in the development of IT industry in Bengaluru are given below:
(i) Availability of resource, cost and infrastructure.
(ii) The city of Bengaluru is known for its mild climate throughout the year.
(iii) The city was considered dust-free with low rents and low cost of living.
(iv) The city has the largest and widest availability of skilled managers with work experience.
3. Explain with suitable examples how a basic industry is different from a consumer industry from a consumer industry. In your opinion, which one of the two should be given priority and why?
Answer 3 :- A basic industry is the one whose finished products are used as raw material for other industries. For example, iron and steel industry produces steel which is used in the manufacturing of machine tools. Thus, iron and steel industry becomes a basic industry. Consumer goods industry is one which produces goods for direct use by consumers. For example, edible oil, tea, soap, bread, radio, etc.
The basic industry should be given priority because it provides industrial base for the manufacture of many other industrial products.
4. What is the importance of manufacturing industries for a nation like India? Explain.
Answer 4 :- Industry converts raw material to a much useful finished product, and in this process, it performs multiple tasks. In short, the manufacturing process transforms natural resources into useful and saleable proucts. It also generates scope for employment and creases national earnings through local and foreign trade. An industrial labourer earns more wages than an agricultural labourer, thus, industries play an important role in making a country economically prosperous.
5. Why is the iron and steel industry considered basic to the industrial development of any country? Name any four major iron and steel plants of India and their location.
Answer 5 :- The iron and steel industry provides industrial base for the manufacture of many other industrial products, and thus, is known as the basic industry. Iron ore occurs in abundance in many parts of the world. It is estimated than 65% machines and utensils are made a steel. The iorn and steel industry is widely distributed in the world. In the USA, Alabama state, the Atlantic coast and the Great Lakes region are the main producers. In Europe, it is well distributed in France, Germany, Italy (Western Europe), UK and the Ural mountain region in Russia. China, India and Japan are other major producers of iron and steel in Asia.
DAV Public School Class 8th Human Resources Social Science Solutions | Question and Answers
DAV Public School Class 8th Human Resources Social Science Question and Answers
A. Tickmark (✓) the correct option:
A. Tickmark (✓) the correct option.
1. Which one of the following is not an area of sparse population?
Ans) (c) The Ganga Valley
2. Out of every 100 people in the world –
Ans) (b) 16 people live in Africa.
3. Which one of the following is false?
Ans) (a) It took just about 111 years for the world population to rise from 1.5 billion to 7 billion.
4. Which one of the following states has the highest density of population in India
Ans) (a) Bihar
5. Which one of the following age groups. represent the productive population ?
Ans) (a) 15 to 59 years
B. Fill in the blanks with right answer. .
1. India ranks second in population next to China, in the world.
2. Number of children below 15 years and adults above 59 years is defined dependent population.
3. The growth of population is affected by its birth rate, death rate and migration.
4. The important attributes of population composition are sex ratio, age structure and literacy rate.
5. In India, almost half of the population resides in the five states of India, i.e., Uttar Pradesh, Maharashtra, Bihar, West Bengal and Madhya Pradesh.
C. Write True or False for the following statements.
D. Answer the following Questions in brief:-
1. What is meant by the growth rate of population?
Answer 1 :- The net change in population between two fixed periods of time expressed in percentage is called the growth rate of population.
2. What are the three important attributes of population composition?
Answer 2 :- Three important attributes of population composition are age structure, sex ratio and literacy rate.
3. What makes the human being the most valuable resource?
Answer 3 :- Human beings who are healthy, educated, and mentally strong can prove to be useful for a country or community and are treated as the most valuable resource.
4. Which regions of the world have high concentration of population and why?
Answer 4 :- Fertile lowlands of Ganga and Brahmaputra rivers in India, Hwang-ho in China, the Nile in Egypt, Mississippi in the USA, Tigris in Iraq and several other plain regions where a high concentration of population is found because their transportation facilities are good and rivers are navigable.
5. Highlight the characteristics of the sparsely population regions of the world.
Answer 5 :- The mountain ranges of the Andes, Himalayas, Plateaus and Rockies of Tibet are sparsely populated. Here, the transportation is very difficult and the living conditions are not very favourable due to high mountains, rugged terrain and rocky plateau.
E. Answer the following questions.
1. Explain relief and climate as factors affecting the distribution of population.
Answer 1 :- (i) Relief: High mountains, rugged terrain and rocky plateau restrict human settlement. Transportation is very difficult and the living conditions are not very favourable. The mountains ranges of the Andes, Himalayas, Plateaus Rockies of Tibet are sparsely populated. On the other hand, plain areas of the world are the most favourable places for human habitation. Plains are good for agricultural and industrial activities in the world.
(ii) Climate: People prefer to live in regions where temperature and rainfall are moderate. Excessive heat, cold, dryness or wetness cause discomfort. Hot and humid areas of the equatorial region, cold desert of Siberia, hot desert of Sahara are the areas that are sparsely populated. On the other hand, favourable climatic conditions in the monsoon regions of India and Bangladesh attract a large concentration of population.
2. How do minerals and industries affect the distribution of population? Explain.
Answer 2 :- (i) Minerals: The presence of minerals like coal and iron ore in different parts of the world has attracted a huge population in these areas because these minerals are required for the iron and steel industry. Hot and dry areas of Australian deserts, Saudi Arabia and South Africa have attracted large groups of migrants because of the availability of petroleum.
(ii) Industries: The development of industries in any region has a very favourable impact on employment opportunities. Industrial hubs attract people from far-off places.
3. What is meant by literacy rate? Why is it considered an important indicator in population composition?
Answer 3 :- The literacy rate is the percentage of people who can read and write in a certain country. The literacy rate varies from country and from rural to urban population in the same country. It is more among male than the female population, more in urban areas than in rural areas. The literacy rate of any country is considered an important indicator of population composition as it affects the socio-economic development of a nation.
4. Define sex ratio. What are the reasons for the declining sex ratio in India?
Answer 4 :- Sex ratio: It is a ratio between the number of females and males in a population. It is expressed as number of females per thousand males. It has been observed that in European countries, the number of females is more than males. Thus, Europe has a high of favourable sex ratio. The rising sex ratio has been recorded since the early 1980s and has since then continued to increase with no signs, of reversing. In India, the sex ratio was recorded as 943 in 2011 which has declined from 972 as recorded in 1901.
Sex ratio in India is declining due to several reasons—
• Preference for male child due to social, economic and religious reasons.
• Infant mortality is higher among girls than among boys because of lack of proper medical facilities.
• General neglect of female children during childhood is largely responsible for high female mortality rate.
• Pre-natal sex determination tests, in spite of ban, continue to large scale practice of female foeticide.
5. Which states of India have high density of population and why? Suggest ways and means to check it.
Answer 5 :- In India, Bihar (1102), West Bengal (1029), Kerala (859), Uttar Pradesh (828) are some of the states that have a high density of population. Favourable climatic conditions, good transportation facilities and a high level of industrialisation has led to rapid urbanisation in these states. Also, rich fertile soil, an abundance of water and well-developed agriculture have brought a high density of population in these states.
DAV Public School Class 8th The Modern Period Social Science Solutions
DAV Public School Class 8th The Modern Period | Social Science Question and Answers
A. Tickmark (✓) the correct option:
1. Modern period of indian history began in the –
Ans) Eighteenth century
2. The call “You give me blood, I’ll give you freedom was given by
Ans) Subash Chandra Bose
3. In which language was the newspaper Kesari published?
Ans) Marathi
4. Which one of the following was a major factor in strengthening the national movement in India?
Ans) Discontentment among the masses against the colonial power.
5. The book Unhappy Indian was written by
Ans) Lala Lajpat Rai
B. Fill in the blanks with right answer. .
1. Land revenue settlements are an important source of information.
2. Collection of Gandhiji’s writings has been preserved and displayed at Gandhi Smriti.
3. The Indian National Congress was established in 1885.
4. The Revolt of 1857 was ruthlessly suppressed by Colonial Power.
5. The Morley – Minto reforms were introduced in 1909.
C. Match the following.
1. Amrita Bazar Patrika–> Bengali
2. My Experiments with Truth–>Mahatma Gandhi
3. Simon Commission Report–>1929
4. Transfer of power to the British Crown–>1858
5. Freedom is our birth right –> Bal Gangadhar Tila
D. Answer the following Questions in brief:-
1. What type of information do we get from the official records?
Answer:- Official records include information on tribes, castes and land revenue settlements.
2. How do letters, writings and speeches provide information? Give examples.
Answer:- Letters, writings and speeches provide us information about the developments in India that take place during a particular period. For example, the Gandhi Smriti near Rajghat, one of the biggest museum on Gandhiji, has a library with around 60,000 books.
3. Mention any five major events related to the freedom struggle of India.
Answer:- The five major events related to the freedom struggle of India are:
(i) Revolt of 1857 (ii) The establishment of the Indian National Congress
(iii) Home Rule League
(iv) Jallianwala Bagh Massacre
(v) Formation of Muslim League
4. Explain any five major sources of information about Modern Indian History.
Answer:- The five major sources of information about Modern Indian History.
(i) British Documents: British documents like Morley-Minto reforms, Report of the Simon Commission, the government of India Act give a lot of information about the condition of the people as well as administration of that time.
(ii) Books: Books like Anandmath by Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay, My Experiments with Truth by Mahatma Gandhi, Unhappy Indian by Lala Lajpat Rai, etc, written in this duration give us an insight into the conditions of that time.
(iii) Newspapers: The London Times Bombay Tunes and vernacular papers like Bal Gangadhar Tilak’s Kesari in Maratha, Amrita Bazar Patrika in Bengali are important sources of the Modem Indian History.
(iv) Administrative reports of the government: Administrative reports of the government on tribes, castes and land revenue settlements are also very important sources of information.
(v) Old buildings, artifacts and people: The architectural style of old buildings, artifacts provide us with information of the past. People who participated in the freedom struggle and saw the important changes share their experiences about the life of the people and the conditions that existed.
5. Enumerate the steps taken by the East India Company to their rule in India? How did the rule of the company come to an end?
Answer:- In order to establish their rule in India, the East India Company strengthened military action. introduced railways, postal service and passed different Acts. The discontentment among the Indian against the colonial power led to many national movements like Quit India Movement, Dandi March, Jallianwala Bagh Massacre etc. As a result, British rule came to an end.
DAV Public School Class 8th Social Science Chapter 9 Solutions
DAV Public School Class 8th Establishment of Company Rule in India Social Science Question and Answers
A. Tickmark (✓) the correct option:
1. Where is Fort William located?
Ans) Calcutta
2. The Battle of Plassey was fought in the year
Ans) 1757
3. Which ruler was killed in the Fourth Anglo-Mysore war?
Ans) Tipu Sultan
4. The first Governor-General of British India was
Ans) Warren Hastings
5. In which battle Siraj-ud-Daulah was defeated by Robert Clive?
Ans) Battle Of Plassey
B. Fill in the blanks with right answer. .
1. Arcot was the capital of carnatic.
2. Robert Clive built small army units at presidency settlements.
3. Dupleix was called back to France in disgrace.
4. Diwani means the right to collect land revenue.
5. Second Anglo-Mysore War ended with the Treaty of Mangalore in 1784.
C. Match the following.
1. Lord Wellesley–> Governor-General of India In 1798.
2. Tiger of Mysore–> Tipu Sultan
3. Lord Dalhousie–> Greatest Annexationist
4. Anwar-ud-Din–> Nawab of Carnatic
5. Mir Qasim–> Nawab Of Bengal
D. Answer the following Questions in brief:-
1. Which Portuguese explorer discovered the sea route to India? How did this mark the beginnings of European era in India?
Answer:- Vasco da Gama was the Portuguese explorer who discovered the sea route to India. By the sixteenth century, the Portuguese had established their colony in Goa. In this next century, India become a popular destination for a large number of European traders, adventures, and missionaries from
2. Why did the European trading companies set up trade centres in coastal areas?
Answer:- The establishment of trading centres in coastal areas was very beneficial for the companies. They could easily buy spices, cotton textiles, indigo and saltpetre at cheap rates from India and sell them in Europe and America at high price. Also, in those days there were no other routes except water routes. Hence, the trading companies had no choice.
3. Explain the policy of Divide and Rule’ adopted by the British. What was its impact on the Indian princes?
Answer:- The Indian rulers often fought with one another on some issue or the other. The East India Company established friendly ralations with the local princes to get more profits. The Indian rulers sought the help of the English military to settle their internal rivalries among the Indian rulers. The British introduced the policy of ‘Divide and Rule’. As a result, the Indian princes became more puppets in the hands of the English.
4. Describe the causes and the consequences of the First Carnatic War.
Answer:- The First Carnatic War was the result of Austrian succession war that took place in 1740 between Austria and Prussia. England and France entered opposite sides in this war. Commodore Barnet, the British Naval Officer arrived into India with troop. But the French proposed peace with British. The Nawab of Carnatic, Anwar-ud-Din, also ordered that there should not be any war. So, Commodore Barnet returned to England, but Dupleix did not keep his promise and attacked Madras and occupied it. The British complained to the Nawab. He declared war against the French. The battle took place in 1746. In this battle Anwar-ud-Din was defeated by the French. The Austrian succession war came to an end in 1748. The power of France weakened in India also. France was forced to sign a treaty and hand over Madras back to England.
5. How did the assumption of Diwani benefit the East India Company?
Answer:- Right to collect Diwani by the British began a Dual Government in Bengal. The Nawab looked after the administration and the Company controlled the army, the judiciary and the revenue collection of Bengal. This arrangement gave immense power to the British without any responsibility.
E. Answer the following questions.
1. How did East India Company become an imperial power in India? Explain.
Answer:- (i) The East India Company was established as a trading company. It took advantage of the political instability and took over the control of a large part of India.
(ii) The company set up trading ports in Surat and the three presidency settlements at Fort William in Bengal, Fort St. George in Madras and the Bombay castle.
(iii) They established friendly relations with the local princes to further their profits. The Indian princes became mere puppets in the hands of the English.
(iv) The Indian princes signed alliances to secure the help of the English military to settle their internal rivalries.
(v) The Company’s victory in the Battle of Plassey and then in the Battle of Buxar strengthened its root in India. It gave the British immense confidence which helped them to expand their power in large part of the country. (Ln) In 1765, the British got the right to collect Diwani in Bengal. This arrangement allowed the Company to use vast revenue resources of Bengal.
2. What is meant by a Dual government? How did it lead to public suffering?
Answer:- Dual Government began in Bengal when the British got the right to collect Diwani. Under this system, the Nawab looked after the administration and the company controlled the army, the judiciary and the revenue collection of Bengal. This arrangement gave immense power to the British without any responsibility. Subsequently, suffering of the general public started. Thousands of people died in the Bengal famine in 1770 but the company did not help the victims and the Nawab did not have the resources.
3. The Battle of Buxar was a turning point in India. Give arguments to support the statement.
Answer:- The Battle of Buxar was very important in the history of India. The East India Company’s victory in this battle established British colonial rule in the Bengal Presidency and subsequent expansion of British control all over India. The battle was beneficial for the expansion of the power of the East India Company. It grained the rule and the Diwani—the right to collect the revenue from Bengal, which included Bihar and Orissa (now Odisha).
4. What was the importance of the Battle of Plassey?
Answer:- The Battle of Plassey is generally thought to signify the start of British rule in India. It was fought between the forces of East India Company under Robert Clive and the army of Siraj-ud-Daulah at Plassey between Calcutta and Murshidabad. Mir Jafar, who wanted to become the Nawab, bribed Indian soldiers to throw away their weapons. Clive easily won the battle. The British consolidated their position in Bengal by making Mir Jafar, the Nawab of Bengal. He gifted large sums of money and 24 Parganas of Bengal to the British.
F. Value Based Question
The Battle of Plassey was fought between the forces of East India Company led by Robert Clive and Siraj-ud-Daulah, the Nawab of Bengal. Mir Jafar, the Commander in-Chief who wanted to become the Nawab, bribed Indian soldiers to throw away their weapons. As a result, Robert Clive won the battle. Mir Jafar was made the Nawab of Bengal.
1. What was the main reason for the defeat of Siraj-ud-Daulah at the Battle of Plassey?
Answer:- The Indian soldiers took bribes and threw away their weapons. As a result, Siraj-ud-Daulah was defeated by Robert Clive.
2. If you would have been in place of Mr. Jafar, what would you have done and why?
Answer:- If I were in the place of Mir Jafar, I did not adopt this unfair means to fulfil my selfish motive. Mir Jafar was an Indian citizen though he was a Commander-in-chief also. We should be sincere and honest to our job and duty. But when our job compels us to work to weaken our motherland, we can be dishonest to our job as our motherland we can be dishonest to our job as our motherland is the first and then our job.
DAV Public School Class 8th Social Science Chapter 10 Solutions
Students who are looking for DAV Public School Class 8th Social Science Chapter 10 Solutions then you are in right place, we have discussed the solution of Social Science class 8 book chapter 10 Colonialism: Rural and Tribal Societies in all DAV Schools. Solutions are given below with proper Explanation please bookmark our website for further updates!!
DAV Public School Class 8th | Colonialism: Rural and Tribal Societies Science Question and Answers
A. Tickmark (✓) the correct option:
1. Under the Mahalwari System, the word mahal means—
Answer:- (b) a group of villages.
2. The Ryotwari System was introduced by—
Answer:- (c) Thomas Munro
3. The other name for Zamindari Bandobast was—
Answer:- (a) Permanent Revenue System
4. Who was the leader of the Santhals’ revolt?
Answer:- (b) Sindhu and Kanhu Murmu
5. Where did Industrial Revolution begin first?
Answer:- (a) England
B. Fill in the blanks with right answer. .
1. English shattered the self-sufficient rural economy.
2. Many tribals left forests in search of livelihood.
3. Zamindari System was introduced in Bengal by Lord Cornwallis.
4. Land revenue was the biggest source of income for the Company.
5. Basic or Key industry started in India after independence.
C. Write True or False for the following statements.
1. Before the advent of East India Company, the rural life in India was simple and self-sufficient.
2. The British wanted to smuggle and sell opium in Spain to earn profit.
3. Kisan Sabhas were formed in 1930 to support the cause of peasants.
4. The khonds of Orissa practised shifting agriculture.
5. The tribal chiefs lost all their powers and were forced to follow the laws made by the British officers in India.
Answer:- 1. True, 2. False, 3. True, 3. True, 4. True, 5. True
D. Answer the following Questions in brief:-
1. Highlight the main features of the Mahalwari System.
Answer:- Mahalwari System: In this system, the settlement was made collectively, with a group of villagers called mahaL Since the land, the forests and the pastures belonged to the village community, the villages were jointly responsible for the payment of land revenue. It was levied on the produce of a mahal.
2. Why did the British force Indian farmers to grow commercial crops?
Answer:- The East India Company wanted to collect maximum taxes to meet their military and administrative expenses. They also wanted to gain maximum profit. So, the company started using coercive methods to procure goods which were in great demand in Europe. They purchased raw material at low rates and sent to England. The finished goods were brought back to India and sold at high prices to earn more profits. The Company forced the farmers to grow crops like indigo, cotton, raw silk, opium, pepper, tea, sugarcane, etc.
3. What was the impact of colonial rule on the tribals of India? Mention any three.
Answer:- The British rule badly affected the life of the tribals:
(i) Almost every tribe had a tribal chief. But under the British rule, the chief lost all power and were forced to follow the laws made by the British officers in India.
(ii) The Britishers did not like shifting cultivation. When the tribals forced them to allow them to continue this system, they (Britishers) made several changes in the forest laws which made the tribal life very difficult. Most of the forests were declared as the state property. Many tribals had to move to other areas in search of livelihood.
(iii) During the nineteenth century, when the demand for the forest produce increased, the traders and the moneylenders took advantage of the situation. They went to the tribals and offered them cash loAnswer:- They also asked them to work on wages. By offering cash loans they trapped the innocent tribals in their net which proved very oppressive.
(iv) Many tribals were out of work. A large number of them were recruited through contractors to work in the tea plantations in far off areas of Assam. They were paid low wages and were not allowed to go back home. Many tribals were also recruited in factories and fields to work under very harsh conditions. (Any three)
4. Write short notes on the Birsa Movement.
Answer:- Birsa was born in the mid-1870s in a family of Mundas, a tribal group that lived in Chhotanagpur. In 1895, Birsa Munda emerged as a hero of the tribals. He urged them to work on their land to earn their living. This would end their sufferings. Slowly and steadily, the Birsa movement became popular. Birsa told his people that land policies of the British were destroying their traditional land system. Birsa was jailed for two years but on his release, he instigated the tribals to attack zamindars. He raised the white flag as a symbol of Birsa Raj. The movement ended in 1900 with the death of Birsa.
5. Highlight any three changes that took place in modern industries in the nineteenth century.
Answer:- (i) Industries like cotton, jute, iron and steel developed at a fast rate. For example, the expansion of railways, the demand for coal, iron and steel increased.
(ii) With the passage of time, the cement, chemical and sugar industries also developed.
(iii) Tea became the biggest plantation industry in Assam, Bengal and South India. Other plantation industries were coffee, cinchona and rubber.
E. Answer the following questions
1. List the main features of Permanent Settlement. How did the production of opium, indigo and sugar shot up the profit margins of the East India Company?
Answer:- The main features of Permanent settlement:
(i) Zamindari was made a hereditary right of the zamindars and the permanent settlement or the Zamindari Bandobast.
(ii) They were made the owners of the land.
(iii) They were forced to pay 89% of the total revenue to the British government. Their own share was 11%. The East India Company sold opium in China and earned huge profits. Indigo was in great demand in the textile industries of Britain. The peasants were forced to cultivate indigo plants to extract blue dye. But they were never paid just prices. Similarly, sugar was also in great demand in the West. Hence, many Europeans set up sugar plantations in India. Again, the fanners were the sufferers. They had to produce sugar at a very low price. Thus, the British industries flourished at the cost of the Indian industries.
2. Differentiate between Ryotwari and Mahalwari system.
Answer:- (i) The Ryotwari system was introduced in 1820 in the South and West of India. The Mahalwari system was introduced in 1822 in Gangetic Valley, North-West provinces, Central India and Punjab.
(ii) In the Ryotwari system, a direct settlement was made between the government and the ryots or cultivators. Under the Mahalwari system, a settlement was made collectively, with a group of villages called mahal
(iii) In the Ryotwari system, the revenue was directly collected from the cultivator. Under the Mahalwari system, the villagers were jointly responsible for the payment of land revenue.
3. How did colonialism systematically destroy Indian crafts and industries? Explain.
Answer:- Before the company monopolised trade, India was very rich in handicrafts, calica, muslin, wool and silk products. Metal works of iron, steel, copper, brass, gold and silver were also in great demand. In the seventeenth century, trade with European nations was in favour of India as we exported large quantities of fine cotton, silk fabrics, spices, indigo, drugs, precious stones and handicrafts.
But the company’s policy systematically destroyed crafts, cottage industries and artisanship of India.
(i) To safeguard the British cotton industry, Indian silk and cotton textiles were destroyed with imposition of very heavy duty on Indian goods, promotion of British machine-made articles at cheaper rates and decrease in the princely patronage.
(ii) The British brought changes in their trade policies which forced the Indian craftsmen and artisans to give up their traditional livelihood.
(iii) The industrial revolution in Britain and other European countries also played a major role in destroying the Indian industries.
4. How far were British agrarian and tribal policies responsible for widespread discontentment in India?
Answer:- Before the advent of the East India Company, the Indian rural life was simple and sufficient. The British brought many changes in the field of land revenue system, agriculture, trade, industry and administration to guard their own interest. They devised various methods to ensure the collection of revenue from Indian territories arranged by them. With the passage of time the British empire expanded. As a result, the amount of revenue also increased. The company found land revenue the biggest source of income. Hence it introduced several Land Revenue Settlements such as Zamindari System under the Permanent Settlement, Ryotwari System, Mahalwari System etc. All these systems proved oppressive to the farmers. The Zamindari System empowered the zamindars so much so that they began to use oppressive methods to collect taxes from the cultivators. They had the power to evict any cultivator of the soil due to non-payment of revenue. The Ryotwari and Mahalwari Systems only added miseries to the fanners’ life. The next target of the company was the tribals of India, who lived in deep forests and led a life of self-sufficiency. But the company made their life very difficult by introducing several changes in the forest laws. Most of the forests were declared as the state property. Many tribals had to move to other areas in search of livelihoods. The commercialisation of agriculture and exploitation of forest wealth made many tribals homeless and jobless. The unjust policies of the British resulted in rebellions by tribals in different parts of India.
5. Describe any five revolts by the tribals against the British.
Answer:- (i) Revolt by the Khasis, who lived in the Khasi hills of north-west Assam, took place in 1829. The construction of a road through their land united many Khasi chiefs against the English under the leadership of Bar Manik and Tirut Singh. But the British suppressed their rebellion brutally.
(ii) The Kukis of hilly regions of Manipur continued attacking the British territories from 1829. But they were forced to surrender in 1850.
(iii) The Khonds of Khondmals (near Orissa) revolted against the British in 1846 due to the fear of being annexed. But they could not stand before the might of Britishers.
(iv) The Santhals found themselves quite helpless against the ruthless exploitation and oppression of the traders and the middlemen. They were expecting the British government to safeguard their interests. When nothing was done, they revolted against the Britishers in 1855 to
1856 under the leadership of Sindhu and Kanhu Murmu.
(v) Mundas of Chotanagpur, joined by the Kokarian tribe of the same region, revolted in 1831. The struggle was suppressed by the British forces. But the exploitation by the merchants and the moneylenders continued. In 1895, Birsa Munda, a young boy, emerged as hero of tribals. He urged them to continue to work on their own land to earn their living and not to move away. This would end all their sufferings.
DAV Public School Class 8th | The First War of Independence-1857 Science Question and Answers
Something to Know
A. Tickmark (✓) the correct option.
1. The Revolt of 1857 started on—
Answer 1 :- (a) May 10, 1857
2. Mangal Pandey belonged to which one of the following places?
Answer 2 :- (c) Barrackpore
3. Who took over the governance of India from the East India Company after his 1857 revolt?
Answer 3 :- (a) The British Parliament
4. The British army was reogranised after the Revolt of 1857 to
Answer 4 :- (d) prevent future revolts.
5. The practice for looking down upon the Blacks is known as—
Answer 5 :- (c) racial discrimination
B. Fill in the blanks with right answer. .
1. The first War of Independence is also known as the Sepoy Mutiny of 1857.
2. The British considered themselves superiors.
3. Bhadur Shah Zafar was exiled to Rangoon.
4. Rani Laxmi Bai wanted her lost kingdom.
5. The Doctrine of Lapse created resentment among Indian rulers.
C. Write True or False for the following statements.
D. Answer the following briefly.
1. The revolt of 1857 was the landmark in the history of India’s struggle for independence. Justify the statement with any three arguments.
Answer 1 :- The Revolt of 1857 was the landmark in the history of India’s struggle for freedom.
(i) The revolt soon spread to different parts of country after many sepoy started it against the East India Company.
(ii) Many sections of the society like peasants, artisans, soldiers, educated Indians and many Indian rulers joined hands to fight against the Britishers.
(iii) Hindus and Muslims also came together to oppose British rulers.
2. What was the doctrine of Lapse and how did it affect the rulers of India?
Answer 2 :- The Doctrine of Lapse was a policy of annexation introduced by Lord Dalhousie in 1848 and continued till 1856. The doctrine declared that if any Indian ruler died without leaving behind a natural heir to the throne, his kingdom automatically became a part of the British territory. Several kingdoms like Satara, Sambalpur, Udaipur, Nagpur, Jhansi and Awadh were annexed by applying this doctrine. This doctrine created fear and resentment among the Indian kings.
3. Explain subsidiary alliances with the help of examples.
Answer 3 :- Subsidiary Alliance was a treaty signed by the British with Awardh in 1801. The Nawab Wajid Ali Shah was compelled to accept the permanent British army within the territory and to pay a subsidy for its maintenance. he could not recruit any other European in his service without prior approval. He had to station a Resident in his court, which reduced the power of the Nawab. Gradually, the Indians lost all trust in the British. Awadh had been an ally of the East Indian Company for nearly a century. Still it was annexed on the plea that the government was not functioning properly. The Nawab was exiled to Calcutta. Begum Hazrat Mahal took over the reign of Awadh. This shocked the other rulers.
4. How did the economic policies of the British adversely affect the Indian economy?
Answer 4 :- Indian economy was greatly affected by the economic policy of the British.
(i) The Zamindari system exploited the peasants.
(ii) The peasants were forced to grow only those crops which were required by the British industries.
(iii) British goods like textiles overtook the Indian markets. These things made artisans and peasants unemployed.
5. Why is Revolt of 1857 called the First War of Independence? What were its immediate causes?
Answer 5 :- The Revolt of 1857 is known as the First War of Independence as it was the first time in Indian history that different sections of Indian society united and fought as one nation to throw off the foreign British rulers. The cartridges of the new Enfield rifle had a greased paper cover which had to be bitten off before the cartridge was loaded into the rifle. The grease was composed of beef and pig fat. Both the Hindus and Muslims refused to use them. Mangal Pandey, a young Indian Sepoy from Bengal Regiment, was the first to refuse it. He not only refused to use the greased cartridge but also shot down his sergeant. He was arrested, tried and executed. The revolt started at other places as soon as this news spread.
E. Answer the following questions:
1. Describe the course of the Revolt of 1857.
Answer 1 :- The revolt of 1857 was started by the Indian soldiers and it soon spread to different parts of the country. The regiments in Meerut marched to Delhi and there Mughal Emperor Bahadur Shah Zafar supported the rebellion. It gave courage and confidence to act. Local leaders, zamindars and chiefs fought valiantly. Nana Saheb in Kanpur, Tantya Tope in Bithul, Begum Hazrat Mahal in Awadh, Rani Laxmi Bai in Jhansi and many more took an active part in organising the uprising against the British. The Revolt also spread to Bareily, Agra, Benaras and other places. Many groups were there who did not join the revolt like Sikhs in Punjab, Nizam of Hyderabad, Madras and Bombay Regiment.
2. Describe five main causes of the First War of Independence.
Answer 2 :- The main causes of First War of Independence are:
(i) The Indian soldiers were dissatisfied with the treatment meted out to them. They were unhappy about their pay, allowances and conditions of service. Some of the new rules of the company violated their religious sentiment and beliefs.
(ii) Lord Dalhousie’s policy of annexation created fear and resentment among Indian rulers. They were not allowed to adopt heir to the throne. The policy ensured that those kingdoms where the kings did not have natural heirs, would be taken over by the British after the demise of the king.
(iii) The zamandari system exploited the peasants who were forced to grow only those crops that the British industries required. This angered the peasants. British goods also flooded the market that made the artisans unemployed.
(iv) Many Indians opposed the introduction of western education and the conversion of Indians to Christianity. The Hindu law of property was changed to enable a Christian convert to receive Christanity.
(v) The immediate cause of the revolt was the cartridges of the new Enfield rifle. It had a greased paper cover which had to be bitten off before the cartridge was loaded into the rifle. It was suspected of being coated with the fat of cows and pigs. Both Hindus and Muslims refused to use them. Mangal Pandey, an Indian Sepoy refused to use the greased cartridge but also shot down his sergeant. When this news spread, many sepoys started the revolt.
3. What steps did the British take to suppress the Revolt.
Answer 3 :- Though the Revolt spread far and wide but the Britishers were able to supress the revolt by many ways.
(i) The British military officers freed Delhi, the epicentre of the Revolt, from the rebels. The Kashmiri Gate was blown up. Hundreds of people were killed.
(ii) Mughal Emperor Bahadur Shah Zafar was tried for treason and exiled to Rangoon.
(iii) Lucknow was recaptured in 1858. Rani Lakshmi Bai was killed in the battle and Tantya Tope was captured, put on trial and exceuted. Thus, the British finally suppressed the massive force of popular rebellion.
4. Why did the First War of Independence fail inspite of the participation of different sections of Indian Society? Explain.
Answer 4 :- The First War of Independence was a great event because people from different sections of the society took an active part in it. But it was effectively suppressed by the Britishers. There were several reasons behind its failure.
(i) The revolt had been planned for months but it broke out before the appointed date. It did not go according to the plan.
(ii) There was no unity among the rebels. Their motives was not the nationalism but they fought for their own self-interest. The sepoys of Bengal wanted to revive the glory of the Mughals, while Nana Sahab and Tantya Tope tried to re-establish the Maratha power and Rani Laxmi Bai fought for her lost Kingdom.
(iii) The revolt was limited to North and Central India. In the North, the Sikhs, the Nizams and the Scindias were unaffected by the revolt and the Gurkhas still remained loyal to the Britishers.
(iv) The rebels lacked the modern weapons and the disciplined army.
(v) The leadership of the Revolt was very weak. The Indian rulers fought to liberate their own territories and did not think about the freedom of the entire country.
5. What changes were made in the administration of India after the Revolt was suppressed?
Answer 5 :- After the revolt, the British authority in India made some changes in their policies for the re-establishment.
(i) The rule of the East India company ended. The British crown took over the administration.
(ii) A secretary of State was appointed by the British Parliament to look after the governance of India with the help of a council.
(iii) The Governor-General was given the title of Viceroy—which was the representative of the British Crown.
(iv) The British reorganised the army to prevent any future revolts.
(v) The policy of annexations of Indian territories was given up. The Indian princes were granted the right of adoption.
(vi) Full religious freedom was guaranteed to the Indians.
(vii) Indians were also given the assurance that high posts would be given to them without any discrimination.
DAV Public School Class 8th | Impact of British Rule on India Science Question and Answers
Something to Know A.
Tickmark (✓) the correct option.
1. The main objective of the East India Company was-
Answer:- (c) to earn profit
2. Who initiated the Wardha Education Scheme in 1937?
Answer:- (a) Mahatma Gandhi
3. The reformer who fought against the Brahmin dominance and discrimination against the lower castes was-
Answer:- (b) Shri Narayana Guru
4. Arya Samaj was established by—
Answer:- (a) Dayanand Saraswati
5. Who is known as the Architect of Indian Constituion?
Answer:- (d) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar.
Answer:- 1. (c), 2. (a), 3. (b), 4. (a), 5. (d)
B. Fill in the blanks with right answer. .
1. A number of pathshalas and maktabs provided elementary education.
2. Charter Act of 1813 sanctioned one lakh of rupees for education in India.
3. Wood’s Despatch of 1854 gave a plan for a separate department of education.
4. Swami Dayanand wanted to eradicate the evils from Indian society.
5. The Printing Press played a vital role in mobilising public opinion.
C. State whether the following statements are true or false.
D. Answer the following Questions in brief:-
1. What were the proposals of Wood’s Despatch of 1854?
Answer:- Charles Wood made many important changes in the educational policy of the British.
(i) Wood’s Despatch gave a detailed plan for separate department of education.
(ii) Universities were set-up at the presidency towns of Bombay, Calcutta, and Madras.
(iii) Institutes for training the teachers were also opened up.
(iv) The vernacular schools were given assistance by the British.
2. Highlight any three social evils of Indian society related to women.
Answer:- Three social evils of Indian Society related to women:
• Sati: It was an inhuman practice where a window was forced to burn herself on the funeral pyre of her husband. It was abolished in 1829 by the Governor-General, William Bentinck, at the insistence of Raja Ram Mohan Roy, a social reformer.
• Female Infanticide: It means killing of infant girls which was banned by law in 1870.
• Child-Marriage : Children were married as early as one or three years of age which was banned by law in 1891 and again in 1929. The Sharda Act of 1929, after amendment, fixed the age of marriage at 18 years for girls and 21 years for boys. It applied to all people living in British India and not only Hindus.
3. Describe any three main contribution of Swami Dayanand Saraswati as a social reformer.
Answer:- Swami Dayanand was a great sage, philospher, scholar and a social reformer. His main contributions were:
(i) He established Arya Samaj Society of Nobles at Bombay and later at Lahore.
(ii) He believed in one God and propagated the message of ‘Back to Vedas’, which are a source of great knowledge.
(iii) He started Shuddhi Movement to reconvert Hindus who had been converted to other religions.
(iv) He opposed idol worship, child marriage and caste system.
(v) He supported for widow remarriage and women’s education.
4. Differentiate between the Anglicist and the Orientalist.
Answer:- The Orientlists favoured the traditional’ system with Sanskrit and Persian as the medium of instruction while the Anglicists favoured English as medium of instruction.
5. Evaluate the efforts made by Indian leaders to improve Indian education.
Answer:- (i) Jyotiba Phule started a special school for the under privileged class.
(ii) Veeresalingam, the prophet of modern Andhra Pradesh was a reformer and the first person to write a novel, drama. Veeresalingam started a magazine, titled Vivekavardhini, in which he propagated women’s education, widow remarriage and the rights of women.
(iii) Gandhiji initiated the Wardha Education scheme in 1937 in which he purposed a National Education System that would inculate moral like truth, goodness, justice, self respect among Indians.
E. Answer the following questions.
1. Do you think that the British system of Education had a negative impact? Write support your answer with suitable arguments.
Answer:- The British system of Education, no doubt, broadened the outlook of many Indians and created awareness among them. But at the same time the system showed several negative points:
(i) The British never glorified Indian past in their textbook which was so rich and varied. Instead, it glorified only the British administration and philosophy.
(ii) The British System of Education was limited to a small number of IndiAnswer:- This created a division between English educated Indians and the rest of Indians.
(iii) Indigenous literature and thoughts were also ignored.
(iv) Only rich Indians got the benefit of the British system of Education. Those who were poor could never think of getting any benefit from this system.
2. State the major landmarks in the field of education in the nineteenth and the twentieth centuries.
Answer:- (i) The Charter Act of 1813 was passed by the British in which a sum of one lakh rupees was sanctioned for education in India. The Hindu and the Elphinstone colleges were established in Calcutta and Bombay respectively. These institutions produced English educated Indian elite class.
(ii) In the year 1854, Wood’s Despatch came which made major changes in the educations policy of the British. It gave a detailed plan for a separate department of education. Universities were set up at the Presidency towns of Bombay, Calcutta and Madras.
(iii) In 1882, Hunter Education Commission was made to report the position of primary and secondary education in India.
(iv) Indian Universities Act of 1904 was passed to check the growth of higher education in India.
(v) In 1937, Gandhiji started Wardha Education scheme for the welfare of Indians.
(vi) British appointed, in 1943, John Sargent to prepare a National System of Education. It purposed universal compulsory and free education for children between 6-14 years of age. This proposal was also implemented after independence.
3. Describe the main contributions of any three social reformers to improve the Indian society.
Answer:- (i) Raja Ram Mohan Roy. He was a great reformer. He wanted to eradicate the evils from Indian society. Burning of widows on the funeral pyre of their husbands was one of them which, Ram Mohan Roy felt, needed to be routed out immediately. He began to campaign against this inhuman practice. As he had deep knowledge of Sanskrit, Persian and several other Indian and European languages, he tried to show through his writings that the practice of Sati had no sanction in ancient texts. He got support from the contemporary Governor-General, William Bentinck and finally, this evil practice was abolished in 1829.
(ii) Jyotiba Phule: He was a social reformer of Maharashtra. He founded the Satya Shodhak Samaj – an organisation that worked for the upliftment of the low and oppressed classes. Phule started a special school for the underpriviliged class. He started the campaign for the removal of untouchability and upliftment of lower castes took the form of an anti-Brahmin movement.
(iii) Periyar E.V. Ramasamy: He was a great nationalist and revolutionist. He questioned the subjugation of Dravidian Race by the Brahmins, who enjoyed the donations and gifts of Dravidians but discriminated against them in social and religious matters. He was strong supporter of Dravidian culture and launched a Self-Respect Movement in 1925. He propogated the principles of nationalism, self-respect, women’s right and eradication of caste system.
4. State the impact of the reform movements in India.
Answer:- The impact of the reform movements could be seen all over India. These movements influenced all sections of society:
(i) Many social evils were eradicated. The educated Indians revived the past glory and helped in the formation of modern India.
(ii) The reform movements also brought a cultural awakening. India saw a rapid development in the field of literature, science and art.
(iii) There was a remarkable improvement in the status and education of woman. Laws were enforced to curb social evils.
(iv) The reform movements created a middle class of teachers, doctors, lawyers, scientists and journalists. This enlightened and educated class played a very crucial and constructive role in the progress of India.
(v) It was during the reform movements that the opposition to the caste system spread thoughout India and among all sections of the society.
(vi) Many English educated Indians learnt Sanskrit and translated books into English. The spirit of national pride instilled patriotism and prepared the ground for the rise of nationalism in India.
5. ‘Although the British and the Indian Parliament brought many laws to end social evils, yet they continue to exist in the Indian society.’ Justify the statement.
Answer:- (i) The evil practice of Dowry System has been banned by law but unfortunately it continues even today in some parts of India.
(ii) Widow remarriage is still a big problem in our society.
(iii) Untouchability has been legally banned, no doubt, but the practice still continues in different parts of the country. The people belonging to low caste lead a very hard life. They are discriminated and are still marginalised.
DAV Public School Class 8th | Colonialism and Urban Change Science Question and Answers
Something to Know
A. Tickmark (✓) the correct option.
1. Which one of the following was not a Presidency Town during the British period?
Answer:- (a) Surat
2. The British shifted their capital from Calcutta to which other place in 1911?
Answer:- (d) New Delhi
3. Which one of the following did not happen due to the introduction of railways in India?
Answer:- (b) freedom from foreign exploitation.
4. Employment opportunities of Calcutta increased many times due to—
Answer:- (a) building infrastructure facilities.
5. Which one of the following was not an objective for the New Delhi Municipal Committee set-up by the Britishers?
Answer:- (d) To introduce a proper water supply system.
B. Fill in the blanks with right answer. .
1. The great literary figures like Rabindranath Tagore, Aurobindo Ghosh and Mulk Raj Anand were influenced by the English pattern of writing.
2. Many huge architectural wonders were built in the port city of Madras by the Britishers.
3. Many English painters arrived in India in search of princely patronage.
4. Calcutta was the imperial capital of the British, whereas their summer capital was Shimla.
5. Delhi Development Authority was set-up in 1955 to develop and manage land in Delhi.
C. Match the following.
1. Relocation of New Delhi as the British capital —> (d) 1911
2. Formation of Delhi Municipal Committee — —> (c) 1863
3. Delhi Durbar for Queen victoria ————-> (a) 1877
4. Beginning of Indian Railways ————–> (e) 1853
5. Restructuring of Delhi police ————–> (b) 1946
Answer:- 1. (d), 2. (c), 3. (a), 4. (e), 5. (b)
D. Answer the following Questions in brief:-
1. Why did the British introduce railways in India? Explain any three reasons.
Answer 1 :- The British introduced railways for the following reasons:
(i) Commercial advantage. Railways collected raw material from fields and mines and sent them to the ports to be transported to England for British industries.
(ii) Political aspect. Railways safeguarded the British possessions in different parts of India to enable quick movement of armed forces and administrative convenience.
(iii) Defence aspect. More importantly, the railways helped the British Defence Forces in India to counter the military attacks of other imperialist countries, who were trying to expand their influence.
2. Describe the police organisation of Lord Cornwallis.
Answer 2 :- Lord Cornwallis organised the police into a regular force. A Superintendent of Police looked after each district with the assistance of a Deputy Superintendent of Police (DSP). Each district was divided into thanas under darogas. Villages and towns were looked after by chokidars and kotwals.
3. Highlight any three major improvements that took place in Delhi before the Delhi Durbar of 1877.
Answer 3 :- The three major improvements that took place in Delhi before the Delhi Darbar of 1877—
• The cantonment occupied about one-third of the area of the walled city.
• Town Duties Committee was set up by the Britishers for the development of the Cantonment.
• Delhi Municipal Committee was formed for constructing railway lines, stations, road links etc.
4. How did some old trading centres lose their. glory and became de-urbanised?
Answer 4 :- Many old towns, for some specialised goods, lost their glory with the decline in demand for their products. The old trading centres and ports were replaced by new trade centres. De-urbanisation during the nineteenth century destroyed the important cities of Surat, Masulipatnam and Srirangapattnam.
5. What type of discrimination did the people of Calcutta experience after it became the British capital in India?
Answer 5 :- Calcutta became the capital of the British. It was divided into two parts—
(i) the British part was known as the White Town.
(ii) the Indian part was known as the Black Town. The Indian part was inhabited by the poor. It had congested streets and shanties, whereas the British part had sprawling bungalows and with wide-open spaces.
E. Answer the following questions.
1. The British successfully influenced painting, literature and architecture of India’. Give examples to support this statement.
Answer 1 :- The art, architecture, painting, and literature, were greatly influenced by the western contact.
• Indian painters changed their selection of themes and medium of painting from the influence of Western-style of painting.
• In the city of Madras and Bombay, many churches, town halls, railway stations were constructed that resembled famous buildings in England.
• The great literary figures of India were influenced by the English pattern of writing.
2. Describe any five major changes brought about in Delhi by the British before the development of New Delhi.
Answer 2 :- • British started acquiring more and more lands for troops, camps, churches, hospitals, residences, clubs, etc.
• A Town Duties Committee was set-up by the Britishers for the development of the Cantonment, Khyber Pass, the Civil Lines and the Ridge area.
• In 1863, Delhi Municipal Committee was formed for the shifting of the vegetable market outside the walled city, constructing railways lines, railway stations and road links.
• The canal in Chandni Chowk was filled up and trees were cut to cater to increasing traffic, especially, the trams.
• The most modernised developments for this time were piped water and sewerage of the walled city.
3. Describe the distinct features of the city of Calcutta as developed by the British in India. In spite of this, why did the British shift their capital to New Delhi?
Answer 3 :- In 1850s, the industrial growth in the field of textile and jute led the Britishers to start building infrastructure facilities like railways, roads and telegraph lines. Henceforth the population and employment opportunities of Calcutta increased tremendously. As the size and population of the new urban areas expanded, the Calcutta Municipal Corporation was established. But increasing political discontent all over India forced the British to relocate their capital to New Delhi in 1911 as it was more centrally located for administrative convenience.
4. Introduction of railways in India proved to be a blessing in disguise.’ Give three arguments in favour of and three against the statement.
Answer 4 :- Railways were introduced in India for the benefit of the British administration, political control and trade. But railways brought many changes in the lives of IndiAnswer:- People from different parts of India came in close contact. This communication brought about an awareness against social evils’ need of education and freedom from foreign exploitation. There was a lot of opposition against the introduction of railways in India. It offended the people of higher castes as people from all castes had so sit together. Moreover, Indians were not allowed to travel in first class. It was reserved for EuropeAnswer:- But in any case, railways provided many avenues of profit-making for the British.
5. Describe the developmental activities undertaken to construct and develop New Delhi as the new British Capital.
Answer 5 :- The British shifted their capital from Calcutta to Delhi in 1911. The Delhi Durbar changed the look of the city. Civil Lines area (now Delhi University and Old Secretariat) was set up. The Imperial Delhi Committee was formed in 1913 for the construction of the new capital. Later, the Chief Commissioner of Delhi created the Raisins Municipal Committee for building the new capital—New Delhi. It became the residence of the Viceroy and the new administrative centre. The English town planners, especially, Edwin Lutyens, prepared the architectural design for the place of the Viceroy, called the Viceroy’s House (now Rashtrapati Bhawan), Circular Pillar Palace (Parliament House), Kingsway (Rajpath) and War Memorial (India Gate) along with many green spaces, parks and gardens.
DAV Public School Class 8th | The Nationalist Movement (1870 to 1947) Science Question and Answers
Something to Know
A. Tickmark (✓) the correct option.
1. Montague Chemsford reforms introduced-
Answer:- (a) the system of Dual government.
2. Gandhiji started the historic Dandi March from Sabarmati Ashram to Dandi on-
Answer:- (a) March 12, 1930
3. What was the British motive behind the partition of Bengal in July, 1905?
Answer:- (c) The Britishers wanted to weaken the Hindi-Muslim unity.
4. Who amongst the following was not a moderate?
Answer:- (d) Lala Lajpat Rai
5. The slogan “Do or Die” was given during the—
Answer:- (b) Quit India Movement
Answer:- 1. (a), 2. (a), 3. (c), 4. (d), 5.
B. Fill in the blanks with right answer. .
1. The rule of East India Company ended on November 1, 1858.
2. Indian National Army was organised by Netaji Subhash Chandra Bose.
3. Early phase of Congress was under moderate leaders.
4. Home Rule League was started by Anne Besant in Madras.
5. Rowlatt Act empowered the British to put people in jail without trial.
C. Match the following.
1. Formation of Indian National Congress ———-> (d) 1885
2. Morley Minto Reforms ———————-> (e) 1909
3. Formation of Muslim League —————-> (a) 1906
4. Montague Chemsford Reforms —————> (c) 1927
5. Simon Commission to India —————–> (b) 1919
Answer:- 1.—(d), 2.—(e), 3.—(a), 4.—(c), 5.—(b)
D. Answer the following Questions in brief:-
1. Mention the main demands of the radical group of the Congress.
Answer:- (i) To drive away the Britishers as soon as possible.
(ii) To believe in actions—protests, hartais and slogans.
(iii) To propagate Indian culture and Hinduism.
2. State the major achievement of Lucknow Pact of 1916.
Answer:- In 1916, the moderates and Radicals reunited to strengthen the national movement after nine years and the signed the pact with the Muslim League.
3. Describe the contribution of Subhash Chandra Bose in the freedom struggle of India.
Answer:- Subhash Chandra Bose was well-known figure during the freedom struggle. He was ready to join hands with enemies of the British to get the British out of India. His popular slogan, You give me blood and I will give you freedom’ enthus people with immense courage and hope. He disappeared from the British detention and went abroad to seek help for the cause of India’s independence. Later on, he organised Indian National Army (INA) to overthrow the British from India.
4. List the main features of the Lahore session of Congress in 1929.
Answer:- In December 1929, the Congress session was held on the bank of River Ravi in Lahore, with Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru as the President. The historic resolution of Puma Swaraj or Complete Independence was passed. At this session, it was decided to celebrate January 26, 1930, as the First Independence Day of India.
5. Explain any three main provisions of the Government of India Act, 1935.
Answer:- The three man provision of the Government of India Act, 1935 are:
• The Head of the Central Administration was the Governor-General. He continued to have the supreme power.
• The Centre continued to control defence, external affairs and railways.
• A Federal Court was established for provinces and Princely States.
E. Answer the following questions.
1. Who were the moderates? What were their main demands?
Answer 1 :- A group of leaders called moderate influenced the Congress in its early phase. The Moderates were against taking extreme actions. They had deep faith in the good intention of the British government. They were of the opinion that slowly and steadily, they would make the British go to their land. The prominent moderate leaders were Gopal Krishna Gokhale, Dadabhai Naoroji, Surendra Nath Banerjee and others.
Their main demands were to:
• have representative institutions in the whole country for the welfare of the people
• create Provincial Legislative Councils in all provinces.
• recruit Indians for higher positions in the administration.
• ensure the growth of Indian industries and handicrafts.
• stop the drain to wealth to Britian.
2. Describe the role played by any two mass movements toward intensifying the struggle for freedom.
Answer 2 :- (i) Swadeshi Movement: This movement started in 1905 when Bengal was partitioned. Indians boycotted foreign goods and used only Indian goods. Students played an important role in this movement by boycotting classes and picketing shops selling foreign goods. Many women also joined processions and picketing. The movement soon spread from Bengal to Maharashtra and Punjab.
(ii) Civil Disobedience Movement: The British government passed a law, banning the manufacturing of salt by IndiAnswer:- In 1930, Gandhiji decided to break this law. Mahatma Gandhi and other prominent leaders of the freedom struggle know that by this, the British could sell salt at high rates. It is an essential item of our food. Both the rich and the poor needed it equally. On 6 April 1930, Gandhiji along with his followers marched for over 240 miles from Sabarmati to the coastal town of Dandi. Here, he broke the government law by gathering natural salt found on the seashore. A large number of people including the common mass participated in this historic march. The movement played an important role in achieving the freedom of India.
3. Why did Gandhiji give a call to start Non-Cooperation Movement? Which activities gave momentum to this Movement?
Answer 3 :- Gandhiji believed that British rule was established and survived in India with the cooperation of IndiAnswer:- So in 1920, Gandhiji called for Non-Cooperation—not to cooperate with the government. Non-Cooperation was directed against the injustices done by the British in Punjab and Turkey.
It began with—
• renouncing of titles and honours given by the British.
• boycott of legislatures.
• boycott of schools and colleges by students and teachers.
• opening of Jamia Milia at Aligarh and Kashi Vidya Peeth at Benaras.
• boycott of government offices and courts.
• bonfires of foreign goods.
• hartals and strikes all over the country. After 1919, the struggle against British rule took the form of a mass movement that involved peasants, tribals, students, workers, traders, women etc. The unity between Hindus and Muslims strengthened. When the Non-Cooperation movement was launched, people wholeheartedly participated in it.
4. Describe two main features of each of Morley Minto Reforms of 1909 and Government of India Act of 1919 as well as 1935.
Answer 4 :-
5. “Quit India Movement was the last blow to the British rule in India.” Give arguments in support of this statement.
Answer 5 :- (i) Mahatma Gandhi and the people of India wanted the British to leave India without any further delay. He gave a final blow to the Britishers on August 8, 1942, by launching the Quit India movement. It was a Civil Disobedience movement in response to Gandhi’s call for immediate independence.
(ii) He raised the slogan ‘do or die’ which spread among the common masses very soon. The Britishers were infuriated. The police and army waged brutal terror on people.
(iii) Gandhiji and all prominent Congress leaders were sent to jail within 24 hours. But this did not prevent the movement from spreading. It especially attracted peasants and the youth who gave up their studies to join the movement. Communications and symbols of state authority were attacked all over the country. In several areas, people set up their own governments.
(iv) The British tried to repress these developments severely. About 90,000 people were arrested and 1,000 were killed in police firing. But the movement did not go in vain. It brought freedom very close.
DAV Public School Class 8th | India Marches Ahead Science Question and Answers
Something to Know
A. Tickmark (✓) the correct option.
1. The first Governor-General of independent India was —
Answer 1 :- (a) Lord Mountbatten
2. Sikkim became a part of India in the year —
Answer 2 :- (c) 1975
3. Agricultural production in India shot up due to —
Answer 3 :- (c) Green Revolution
4. Who imposed emergency in India in 1975?
Answer 4 :- (b) Indira Gandhi
5. Pondichery was liberated from—
Answer 5 :- (b) the French
Answer:- 1. (a), 2. (c), 3. (c), 4. (b), 5. (b)
B. Fill in the blanks with right answer. .
1. The First Five Year Plan was presented for the period from 1951 to 1956.
2. The Indian Independence Act was based on Mountbatten Plan.
3. Chakravati Rajgopalachari was the last Governor-General of free India.
4. As per the Indian Independence Act 1947, the Princely States were given the freedom to decide with dominion to join.
5. The states of Junagrah and Hyderabad joined India after military action.
C. Write a technical term or an appropriate word for each of the following statements.
1. The institution responsible for holding free and fair elections in India.
Answer 1 :- Election Commission
2. The colonial state was liberated from the Portuguese in 1961.
Answer 2 :- Goa
3. The Assembly that made the Constitution of India.
Answer 3 :- Constituent Assembly
4. If needs be, it is formed after the elections to form a government.
Answer 4 :- Coalition Government
5. The architect of India’s foreign policy.
Answer 5 :- Pt. Jawaharlal Nehru
D. Answer the following Questions in brief:-
1. Who framed the Constitution of India and how?
Answer:- The Constitution of India was framed by the Constituent Assembly formed with indirectly elected members of the Provisional Legislative Assemblies. It held its first session in 1946. It was re-assembled on August 14, 1947, as the sovereign Constituent Assembly for the dominion of India. The Constitution was passed on November 26, 1949, and adopted on January 26, 1950, when India became a Republic.
2. Describe India’s economic progress by highlighting the major achievements in this field.
Answer:- Our economic progress can be witnessed in expansion and diversification of production both in industry and agriculture. The Government has built the infrastructure like power, information technology, communication, transport, etc., which are the basic requirement of the industry. Indian Government has also followed a policy of encouraging indigenous industries and given them a lot of assistance. In the agriculture sector mechanisation, irrigation, fertilisers and research have improved the scenario. As a result, the agricultural production has shot up both qualitatively and quantitatively. The progress and development can be witnessed in the Green Revolution, the White Revolution, etc.
3. Differentiate between a National Political Party and a Regional Political Party. Give one example of each.
Answer:- National Political Party: The political party at the national level is called the National Party. For example, Indian National Congress. Regional Political Party: The political party at the state/regional level is called regional party. For example, Shiromani Akali Dal.
4. Explain any three challenges being faced by the Indian society even now?
Answer:- (i) Better quality of education is required at all levels from basic literacy to hi-tech science and technology. (ii) Tackling issues related to population growth. (iii) Water conservations, peace and security are required.
5. ‘Our democratic government has also protected the interest of the backward sections of the society’. ‘Justify the statement by giving three arguments’.
Answer:- While forming the Indian Constitution the framer of the Constitution realised that the economic conditions of the scheduled castes, scheduled tribes and other backward classes are very pitiable. They had to face many difficulties in everyday life due to their extreme poverty. So the uplift the condition of these weaker sections, the constitution framed legislations like provisions for reservation in the legislature, government jobs and educational institutions for scheduled castes, scheduled tribes and other backward classes. Since the Independence, these weaker sections’ conditions have improved in all respects. They are getting higher education, decent job and leading a decent life.
E. Answer the following questions.
1. State the main features of the Indian Independence Act, 1947.
Answer:- The main features of the Indian Independence Act of 1947 were:
(i) The British rule of India would end with immediate effect.
(ii) An independent dominion of India was made including the United Provinces under the British like Madras Presidency, Carnatic, East Punjab, West Bengal, Assam, etc.
(iii) West Punjab, North-West Frontier Province, Sindh and East Bengal would go to Pakistan.
(iv) The Princely States were given the freedom to decide which dominion to join.
(v) The dominions of India and Pakistan were granted complete freedom and they became members of the British Commonwealth.
2. Describe the progress made by India in the field of industry and agriculture.
Answer:- India’s economic progress can be witnessed in expansion and diversification of production both in industry and agriculture. Some of its achievements are given below:
(i) The government has built infrastructure like power, information technology, communication, transport, etc. which are the basic requirements of the industry.
(ii) The government has also followed a policy of encouraging indigenous industries and giving them a lot of assistance.
(iii) In the agriculture sector also, mechanisation, irrigation, fertilisers and research have improved the scenario. Agricultural production has shot up both qualitatively and quantitatively.
(iv) The Green Revolution and the White Revolution are also grand achievements in India.
3. Mention any five basic features of India’s foreign policy.
Answer:- The basic features of India’s foreign policy are:
(i) Promotion of world peace
(ii) Anti-colonialism
(iii) Anti-imperialism
(iv) Anti-racialism
(v) Panchsheel
(vi) Non-alignment
(vii) Friendly relations with neighbours
(viii) Regional Cooperation
4. Highlight the main features of Dr. A.P.J. Abdul Kalam’s India Vision 2020.
Answer:- Every country needs a vision that will stir the imagination and motivate all segments of society to greater effort. It is the dream of all Indians that India should emerge as a vibrant and dynamic country and make great progress in all fields. Better quality of education is required at all levels from basic literacy to hi-tech science and technology, raising of agricultural productivity and industrial quality, spurring the growth of IT and biotechnology, improving health and nutrition, tackling issues related to population growth, energy and water conservation, peace and security are required. In the words of our late-President Dr. Abdul Kalam, the day is not far when enlightened and ignited minds will transform India into a competitive beautiful nation.’
5. Why did India opt for a democratic set-up? In your opinion, how far have we succeeded in this respect?
Answer:- The path that independent India had to follow was planned during the freedom struggle itself. It aimed at vesting the sovereign power in the hand of the people. Hence, India opted for a democracy. It was necessary to have a system where every section of society would be represented. Every community, religion and language would enjoy equal status. Equality means equality of status and opportunity without any discrimination. Our democratic government has also protected the interest of the backward sections of society.
DAV Public School Class 8th Our Constitution Social Science Question and Answers
Something To Know
A. Tickmark (✓) the correct option:
1. In a parliamentary form of government—
Answer:- (b) there is no relationship between the legislature and the executive.
2. The Constituent Assembly of India consisted of—
Answer:- (b) indirectly elected numbers.
3. Most of the provisions of Indian Constitution can be amended by—
Answer:- (a) simple majority.
4. Freedom of religion makes India a—
Answer:- (c) Secular state
5. Which one of the following statements goes against the spirit of federalism in India?
Answer:- (a) India has a written and rigid Constitution.
Answer:- 1. (b), 2. (b), 3. (a), 4. (c), 5. (a)
B. Fill in the blanks with right answer. .
1. Family is the basic unit of society.
2. India is a vast country with various physical, cultural and social diversities.
3. The Constitution provides a set of rules, principles and laws acceptable to almost all.
4. England is not a republic because its Head of the State is hereditary.
5. India has a single integrated judicial system.
C. Write True or False for the following statements
D. Answer the following Questions in brief:-
1. Cite three examples to prove that Indian Constitution is quite dynamic.
Answer:- Whenever the need was felt, the Indian Constitution was suitably amended according to the relevant demands to achieve national goals or to eradicate certain evil practices. Abolition of Privy Purse, Nationalisation of bank, Reservation for OBCs, Right to Information, Right to Education, Reservation of seats in the local selfbodies for women are some examples which prove that Indian Constitution is quite dynamic.
2. Identify any three provisions which make the Constitution of India rigid as well as flexible.
Answer:- A Constitution is called rigid or flexible on the basis of the procedure of its amendments. A rigid Constitution is one that cannot be amended easily. On the contrary, a flexible Constitution can be amended easily. The strength of a rigid Constitution is that it is stable and is a guarantee against hasty changes. A flexible constitution is considered progressive in nature and helpful in the development of the nation. Keeping this in mind, the Constitution of India is a combination of both rigid as well as flexible.
3. “India has a parliamentary form of government.” Give any three examples to support this statement.
Answer:- India has a parliamentary form of government both at the centre and in the states. In a parliamentary democracy, there is a close relationship between the legislature and the executive. The Council of Ministers is constituted from amongst the members of the legislature. It holds the office as long as it continues to enjoy the confidence of the legislature. In a parliamentary form of government, the Head of the State, the President in case of India, is a nominal head. Although, she/he enjoys many powers, but in practice all these powers are exercised by the Council of Ministers headed by the Prime Minister.
4. Why is Indian federation called quite unique? Explain.
Answer:- In the Indian federation, the Central Government, which is also called the Union Government, is so powerful that at times it appears that India is not really a federation but a unitary state. However, the Constitution of India has several features of a federation combined with the elements of a unitary state. Some people describe India as a federation with a very strong central government.
5. Explain the procedures of amending the Indian Constitution.
Answer:- (i) By Simple Majority: Certain provisions of the Constitution can easily be changed by passing the Amendment Bill by simple majority, which means the bill should be approved by a majority of the members present and voting in both the Houses of the Parliament.
(ii) By Special Majority: The Amendment Bill shall have to be approved by both the Houses of the Parliament by (i) absolute majority of total membership and (ii) two-thirds majority of members present and voting. Most of the provisions of our Constitution are amended by this method.
(iii) Special Majority and Ratification: After the bill is passed by Special Majority in both the Houses of the Parliament, it may be approved by the legislatures of at least half of the total number of states.
E. Answer the following questions.
1. Describe the composition and contribution of the Constituent Assembly of India.
Answer:- The Constitution of India is the result of serious deliberations of a representative body called the Constituent Assembly, which was an indirectly elected body. Most of the members of this Constituent Assembly represented Hindus, Muslims, Sikhs, Anglo-Indians, Christians, Harijans, Parsis, etc. The Assembly included eminent personalities like Jawaharlal Nehru, Vallabhbhai Patel, Dr. Rajendra Prasad, Maulana Azad, K.M. Munshi, J.B. Kripalani, C. Rajagopalachari, Pattabhi Sitarammyya, Dr. B.R. Ambedkar, Dr. S. Radhakrishnan, M. Gopala Swamy Ayyangar, etc. There were 15 female members also in the Constituent Assembly like Sacheta Kriplani, Sarojini Naidu, Rajkumari Amrit Kaur, etc. Some ideals are included in the Constitution of free India like commitment to democracy and guarantee of justice, equality and freedom to all the people. The makers of the Constitution were also very much concerned about feeding the starved, clothing the naked and ending the exploitation of the already deprived and depressed sections of society.
2. Describe any five salient features of the Indian Constitution.
Answer:- (i) The chief characteristic of the Constitution of India is its uniqueness. The best features of many existing constitutions of the world were modified and adapted to our needs and conditions.
(ii) The Constitution of India is the lengthiest and the most detailed Constitution of the world. It is divided into 22 parts and has 395 Articles and 12 Schedules.
(iii) Indian Constitution is a written Constitution. It was drafted and enacted by the Constituent Assembly, especially elected for this purpose. It was presided over by Dr. Rajendra Prasad. Dr. B.R. Ambedkar was the Chairman of its Drafting Committee.
(iv) It is called rigid or flexible on the basis of the procedure of its amendments.
(v) It is not only a sacred document, that is, a frame-work for democratic governance but also an instrument that may need modifications.
3. Mention any five purposes which the Constitution of India serves towards strengthening democracy.
Answer:- The Constitution of India serves the following purposes:
(i) defines the nature of a country’s political system.
(ii) Provides certain significant guidelines that help in decision making within a democratic setup.
(iii) Lays down rules and provides safeguards against misuse of power and abuse of authority which leads to gross injustice by those in power.
(iv) Guarantees certain rights based on equality to establish social, political and economic justice.
(v) Ensures that the majority group does not dominate the minorities.
(vi) Guards our national interests.
(vii) Does not allow dictatorial or biased decisions which may change the very basic structure of the Constitution.
(viii) Plays a crucial role in democratic societies towards the achievement of desired goals. (any five)
3. Why is the Indian federation called quite unique? Explain.
Answer:- (i) India is a sovereign state because the country is free all external controls. Internally, we are free to take our own decisions. No other country can dictate its policies or terms to us and nobody can interfere in our internal affairs.
(ii) India is a socialist state because socialism is one of the national goals to be achieved. Thus, India is against exploitation in all forms and will try to establish economic justice, without being attached to any particular ideology.
(iii) India is a secular state. All religions enjoy equal freedom. No discrimination is made on grounds of religion. Right to Freedom of Religion is granted by our Constitution under the Fundamental Rights.
(iv) India is a democratic state. Our government is elected by the people and the administration of the country is carried out by the elected representatives of the people. The government is run according to some basic rules.
5. Why do some people say that India is a federation with unitary features? Explain with the help of any five constitutional provisions.
Answer:- The Constitution of India has several features of a federation combined with the elements of a unitary state. So, India is also described as a federation with a very strong central government.
(i) Universal Adult Franchise means that every citizen of India, who is 18 years and above, is entitled to vote in the elections, without any discrimination of caste, colour, class, religion or gender. It is based on equality which is a basic principle of democracy. This right enables all citizens to be involved in the governance of the country through their elected representatives.
(ii) In India, we have single citizenship. Therefore, every Indian, irrespective of the place where she/he lives, is a citizen of India.
(iii) In India, the entire judiciary is one hierarchy of courts. The Supreme Court of India and the High Courts form a single integrated judicial structure with jurisdiction over all laws.
(iv) India has an independent judiciary, free from the influence of the executive and the legislature.
(v) The Fundamental Rights, Directive Principles of State Policy and the Fundamental Duties are also the basic features of the Indian Constitution that prescribe the fundamental obligations of the state to its citizens and the duties of the citizen to the state.
DAV Public School Class 8th Fundamental Rights, Fundamental Duties and Directive Principles of State Policy Social Science Question and Answers
Something to Know
A. Tickmark (✓) the correct option.
1. The Fundamental Right that came into existence in 2002 is the—
Answer 1 :- (b) Right to Education
2. Writs can be issued by—
Answer 2 :- (d) a High Court
3. Which of the following statements regarding the Fundamental Rights is incorrect?
Answer 3 :- (d) They are justiciable.
4. Identify the Directive Principle based on the Gandhian philosophy.
Answer 4 :- (b) To organise village panchayats.
5. Which one of the following promotes secularism?
Answer 5 :- (d) Communal harmony
Answer:- 1. (b), 2. (d), 3. (d), 4. (b), 5. (d)
B. Fill in the blanks with right answer. .
1. The Constitution guarantees the Fundamental Rights to all the citizens of India.
2. Right to work has been implemented for the rural unemployed under MNREGA.
3. The practice of untouchability has been abolished to pave the way for social equality.
4. Sikhs are allowed to keep a kirpan was them as a religious symbol.
5. Freedom of religion does not mean that there is no check at all on your religious activities.
C. Match the following.
Answer:- 1. (c), 2. (e), 3. a), 4. (b), 5. (d)
D. Answer the following Questions in brief:-
1. Explain the significance of the Fundamental Rights in our day to day life.
Answer 1 :- Fundamental Rights are essential for the development of the personality of every individual and to preserve human dignity.
2. Explain the Right to Freedom of Religion.
Answer 2 :- Right to Freedom of Religion:
(i) Freedom of conscience and the right to profess, practise and propagate any religion.
(ii) Freedom to every religious institution to manage its own affairs in matters of religion.
(iii) State will not collect any taxes for promotion of any particular religion.
(iv) No religious instruction can be imparted in any educational institution, which is wholly or partly maintained out of State funds.
3. The Fundamental Rights are justiciable and are protected by the Court’. In the light of the above statement, explain the Right to Constitutional Remedies.
Answer 3 :- Right to Constitutional Remedios: The Constitution of India has not only listed Fundamental Rights but has also prescribed remedies against their violation. If a citizen feels that one of her/his Fundamental Rights has been violated by an executive order, she/he may request the Supreme Court/High Courts to issue the appropriate writ for the restoration of her/his rights—The writs are Habeas Corpus, Mandamus, Prohibition, Quo Warranto and Certiorari.
4. Mention any three Directive Principles of State Policy that have been implemented.
Answer 4 :- (i) Economic Principles
(ii) Social Principles
(iii) Gandhian Principles
5. Why does the government sometimes make exceptions to help a particular religious community? Justify your answer with examples from recent times.
Answer 5 :- To respect the sentiments of all religions, the government sometimes makes certain exceptions for a particular community. For example, the wearing and carrying of Kirpan is included in the Sikh religion. So, they are allowed to keep a Kirpan with them as a religious symbol. Similarly, the wearing of a Pagri by Sikhs is again a religious symbol. So, the Sikhs are allowed to wear Pagri in schools or other institutions.
E. Answer the following questions.
1. Explain the five provisions given under the Right to Equality’.
Answer 1 :- Right the Equality:
(i) Equality before law.
(ii) Prohibition of discrimination on grounds of religion, race, caste, sex or place of birth.
(iii) Equality of opportunity in matters of public employment.
(iv) Abolition of untouchability.
(v) Abolition of titles.
2. ‘Our Fundamental Rights are not absolute or unlimited’. Support the statement by giving any five suitable examples.
Answer 2 :- Our Fundamental Rights are not absolute or unlimited. The Indian Constitution has imposed certain restrictions to check the abuse of these rights. Here are some of the examples where restriction imposed are justified—
(i) To prevent spread of infectious diseases, the free movement of the people can be restricted.
(ii) Freedom to practise any profession does not mean to take up gambling, smuggling, hoarding or any other profession, which is injurious or hazardous to the society.
(iii) Nobody can claim to be a doctor or a lawyer unless she/he has the essential qualifications.
(iv) Freedom of expression does not mean to speak or write anything you feel like Any thought or expression that disturbs public peace or harmony or instigates communal violence will not be allowed.
(v) Freedom of religion does not mean to criticise or write anything wrong about the other religion.
3. Classify Directive Principles of State Policy into four main categories. Explain each of them briefly.
Answer 3 :- Directive Principles of State Policy have been grouped into four main categories. They are—(a) Economic principles (b) Social principles (c) Gandhian principles (d) Principles related to international peace and security.
(a) Economic Principles:
(i) To secure equal pay for equal work for both men and women.
(ii) To provide adequate means of livelihood for all.
(b) Social Principles:
(i) To make efforts to raise the standard of living and public health.
(ii) To guard children against exploitation and moral degradation.
(c) Gandhian Principles:
(i) To organise village Panchayats.
(ii) To promote cottage industries.
(d) Principles related to International Peace and Security:
(i) To maintain just and honourable relations between nations.
(ii) To promote international peace and security.
4. Highlight the main provisions of the Right to Freedom.
Answer 4 :- Right to Freedom: (i) Freedom of speech and expression. (ii) Freedom to assemble peacefully and without arms. (iii) Freedom to form associations and unions. (iv) Freedom to move freely throughout the territory of India. (v)Freedom to reside and settle in any part of India. (vi) Freedom to practise any profession or to carry on any occupation, trade or business.
Right to Freedom also includes the following provisions:
(i) Protection in respect of conviction for an offence;
(ii) Protection of life and personal liberty;
(iii) Protection against arbitrary arrest and detention;
(iv) Right to Education.
5. Inspite of freedom of religion, why does communal tension persist in certain parts of the country some times? Suggest ways and means to establish communal harmony.
Answer 5 :- Very often in India, political parties resort to communal politics to win elections. By creating a rift between different communities, the various groups are polarised. This helps in getting the votes of either the majority community or minority community. Economic reasons may also form the reason for communal politics.
Some methods to establish communal harmony are:
(1) There must be a dialogue between the communities to clear the misunderstanding.
(2) Political parties should not be allowed to play communal politics.
(3) The law and order machinery must act swiftly and put down any violence in an impartial manner.
DAV Public School Class 8th The Union Government: The Legislature Social Science Question and Answers
Something to Know
A. Tickmark (✓) the correct option.
1. Which one of the following subjects comes under the Union List?
Answer 1 :- (a) foreign affairs
2. Which one of the following statements about Lok Sabha is correct?
Answer 2 :- (d) Money bills can only be introduced in Lok Sabha.
3. Which one of the following statements about the Indian Parliament is true?
Answer 3 :- (a) It is the highest law-making body of India.
4. Each member of Rajya Sabha has a term of—
Answer 4 :- (c) six years
5. During Lok Sabha elections, reserved constituencies are meant for—
Answer 5 :- (d) scheduled castes and scheduled tribes.
Answer:- 1. (a), 2. (d), 3. (a), 4. (c), 5. (d)
B. Fill in the blanks with right answer. .
1. The topmost level of government in India is Union Government.
2. In case of a disagreement over a law made on the same subject from the Concurrent List, the law made by Centre prevails over the law made by State.
3. The Principle of Universal adult franchise gives all adult citizens the right to vote.
4. The President of India is an integral part of the Parliament.
5. Lok Sabha represents the people of India and Rajya Sabha represents the states of India.
C. Write True or False for the following statements.
Answer:- 1. True 2. False 3. True 4. True 5. True
D. Answer the following Questions in brief:-
1. Why did India opt for a federal form of government? Explain.
Answer 1 :- In a vast country like India with diverse languages, religions, customs, traditions, lifestyles, climatic conditions and geographical features, it becomes difficult to have a single unified administrative set-up. Therefore, we opted for a federal form of government.
2. How have the Legislative powers been divided between the Union Government and the State Government?
Answer 2 :- The Legislative powers have been divided between the Union Government and the State Government into three lists—
(1) Union List (2) State List (3) Concurrent List.
3. Describe the composition of the Union Government in India.
Answer 3 :- The Union Government comprises of (1) The Legislature or Parliament comprised of Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha. (2) The Executive: the President of India, the Prime Minister and the Union Council of Ministers. (3) The Judiciary: The Supreme Court of India consisting of the Chief Justice of India and 25 sitting Judges (maximum number can be 31).
4. Highlight any three dissimilarities between Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha with respect to their composition.
Answer 4 :-
5. Mention any three advantages of Universal Adult Franchise.
Answer 5 :- Three advantages of Universal Adult Franchise:
(i) This right gives the people an opportunity to actively participate in the political process of the country.
(ii) They elect their representatives who constitute the Parliament that controls and guides the Union Government.
(iii) People express their trust in the functioning of our democratic set-up.
E. Answer the following questions.
1. Describe any five major functions of the Indian Parliament.
Answer 1 :- The Indian Parliament performs various functions:
(i) It is the highest law-making body. It makes laws on all the subjects enlisted in the Union List, the Concurrent List and the Residuary Subjects.
(ii) It exercises control over the executive and keeps a check on the ministers and their work. The members of the Parliament have the right to question the ministers about the working of their ministries. If it is not satisfied with the functioning of the ministers, the Lok Sabha can pass a vote of no-confidence.
(iii) The Parliament passes the annual budget of the central government every year. The government cannot impose any tax or incur any expenditure if the proposals are not approved by the Parliament.
(iv) The Parliament is empowered to remove the President, the Judges of the Supreme Court and the High Courts through the process of impeachment.
(v) The members of the Parliament exercise their right to vote to elect the President and the Vice President of India.
2. Compare the legislative and financial powers of Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha. On the basis of your comparison, which one of the two Houses is more powerful and how?
Answer 2 :- An ordinary bill can be introduced in either House of the Parliament. But a money bill can be introduced only in the Lok Sabha. Approval of both Houses in necessary for passing a Bill. In case of disagreement (only in case of ordinary bills) a majority vote in taken in a joint meeting of both Houses. There is no provision to hold a joint sitting in case of money bills or amendment bills.
Ragarding money matters, the Lok Sabha is more powerful than the Rajya Sabha. Money bills can be introduced only in the Lok Sabha. If the Rajya Sabha makes any recommendation regarding a money bill, the Lok Sabha may or may not accept it. Hence, the Lok Sabha is a more powerful House.
3. How is the Speaker of Lok Sabha elected? Mention her/his powers and functions.
Answer 3 :- The Speaker of Lok Sabha is elected by the members from amongst themselves. There is a tradition that the Speaker is elected from the majority party and the Deputy Speaker from the opposition party.
Powers and functions of the Speaker are as follows:
(i) The Speaker presides over the meetings of the Lok Sabha. In her/ his absence, the House is chaired by the Deputy Speaker.
(ii) The Speaker maintains discipline and decorum of the House. If the situation demands, the Speaker can adjourn the House.
(iii) All the petitions and documents addressed to the House are received by the Speaker.
(iv) It is the Lok Sabha Speaker who presides over the joint sitting of both the Houses of the Parliament.
4. Explain the composition of Rajya Sabha. Who can be elected as a member and for how long? Why is Rajya Sabha called a Permanent House?
Answer 4 :- (i) The maximum strength of the Rajya Sabha is 250. Out of these, 12 members are nominated by the President of India and the remaining 238 are elected from the States and Union Territories by the elected members of the Legislative Assemblies. The 12 nominated members are distinguished personalities who excel in various fields of art, literature, science, social service, sports, etc.
(ii) Members of the Rajya Sabha should be citizens of India and not less than 30 years on age. His/Her name must be in the voters’ list.
(iii) The Rajya Sabha is a permanent House which can never be dissolved. After every two years, one-third of its members retire and elections are held to fill these seats. Each member of the Rajya Sabha completes a term of six years.
(iv) The Vice President of India is the Presiding Officer of the Rajya Sabha.
(v) The Vice President presides over the meetings of the Rajya Sabha, conducts its proceedings and maintains the discipline and decorum of the House. In his absence, the Deputy Chairman performs his duties.
5. Describe the procedure followed by the Union Parliament in passing an ordinary bill.
Answer 5 :- The making of a law is initiated by introducing a legislative proposal for the ordinary bill in either of the two Houses of the Parliament. It goes through three readings in each House. Approval of both the Houses is necessary for passing a bill.
For example, in the first reading, the member introducing the bill takes the permission of the House to introduce the bill and explain the purpose of the bill. In the second reading, a general discussion is held, followed by a detailed discussion, step by step. In the third reading, the bill as a whole is put to vote. If passed by a majority, it is sent to the other House. There, the House adopts the same procedure. When both Houses pass the bill, it is sent to the President for his assent. In case of disagreement between the two Houses, a majority vote is taken in the joint meeting of both the Houses.
DAV Public School Class 8th The Union Government: The Executive Social Science Question and Answers
Something to Know
A. Tickmark (✓) the correct option.
1. Who among the following is the Head of the Union Government?
Answer 1 :- (a) The Prime Minister
2. The Supreme Commander of India’s defence forces is—
Answer 2 :- (d) The President of India
3. Which one of the following statements is true?
Answer 3 :- (c) All the members of Rajya Sabha are entitled to vote in the Presidential election.
4. The President can dissolve the Lok Sabha on the advice of—
Answer 4 :- (d) The Prime Minister of India
5. In case of certain extraordinary situations, the President can sanction money to the government out of—
Answer 5 :- (b) Contingency fund
Answer:- 1. (a), 2. (d), 3. (c), 4. (d), 5. (b)
B. Fill in the blanks with right answer. .
1. In Parliamentary form of government, the two types of executives are nominal and real.
2. The process to remove the President of India is called impeachment.
3. The Union Council of Ministers is there to aid and advise the President of India.
4. Responsibility of all the ministers to defend their acts and decisions is called collective responsibility.
5. The President of India is elected by a Single Transferable vote system.
C. Write True or False for the following statements.
Answer:- 1. False 2. False 3. True 4. True 5. False
D. Answer the following Questions in brief:-
1. Explain the judicial powers of the President of India.
Answer 1 :- Judicial powers of the President of India:
(i) The President appoints all the judges of the Supreme Court and High Courts including the Chief Justice.
(ii) On appeal of mercy, the President has the power to reduce the sentence or grant pardon or amnesty.
(iii) He/She can change the death sentence or can postpone it also.
2. Explain the process of electing the President of India.
Answer 2 :- The President of India is elected indirectly by an electoral college consisting of only the elected members of the Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha and Legislative Assemblies of the states. The election is held in accordance with the Single Transferable Vote System of Proportional Representation. Under this system, it is essential to secure the fixed quota of votes to get elected.
3. Differentiate between the real and the nominal executive of India.
Answer 3 :- The real executive is the Prime Minister and the Council of Ministers, whereas the President is the nominal executive because she/he is bound to act on the advice of the Council of Ministers.
4. How can the President of India be removed and on what grounds? Explain.
Answer 4 :- If the President of India violates the Constitution, he/she can be removed from the office by a resolution of impeachment which is passed by both the Houses of the Parliament by two-thirds majority of the total membership.
5. Describe the powers and functions of the Vice President of India.
Answer 5 :- Powers and functions of the Vice President of India:
(i) He/She is the ex-officio Chairman of the Rajya Sabha. He presides over the meetings of the Rajya Sabha, conducts its proceedings and maintains the discipline and decorum of the House.
(a) Since the Vice President is not a member of the Rajya Sabha, he/she does not participate in voting in the House. But in case of a tie, he/she can exercise his casting vote.
(iii) When the office of the President falls vacant due to death, resignation or impeachment, he/she takes over as the officiating President till a fresh election is held. As officiating President, he/she exercises all the powers privileges, etc. of the President of India.
E. Answer the following questions.
1. How is the Union Council of Ministers appointed? Explain its main functions.
Answer 1 :- The Union Council of Ministers comprises of the Prime Minister, the Cabinet Ministers and the Ministers of State. The composition of the Council of Ministers starts with the appointment of the Prime Minister by the President of India. Other ministers are appointed afterwards by the President on the advice of the Prime Minister. The main functions of the Council of Ministers:
(i) It frames internal and external policy of the country.
(ii) It takes decisions at the national and international levels.
(iii) It runs administration through various ministries, like Defence, Finance, Agriculture, Foreign Affairs, Health, etc.
(iv) The Council of Ministers also performs certain legislative functions like preparing and approving the annual budget and making laws.
2. List any five powers and functions of the Prime Minister of India.
Answer 2 :- The Prime Minister of India is the pivot and the entire administration revolves around him/her. He/she is the head of government and performs the following functions:
(i) Forms Council of Ministers.
(ii) Presides over the meeting of the Cabinet as well as the Council of Ministers.
(iii) Coordinate the working of various departments.
(iv) Advises the President to summon or prorogue the session or to dissolve the Lok Sabha before its term expires.
(v) Advises the President about important appointments like that of Chairman of UPSC, Auditor General of India, Ambassadors, etc.
(vi) Acts as a link between the President and the Cabinet.
3. Describe the legislative and financial powers of the President of India.
Answer 3 :- Legislative powers:
(i) He/She can summon, prorogue and address the two Houses of the Parliament. Every year, the first session of the Parliament begins with his/her address.
(ii) The President can dissolve the Lok Sabha before the expiry of its normal term if he/she is advised to do so by the Prime Minister.
(iii) No bill passed by both the Houses of the Parliament, becomes a law without his/her consent. Prior approval of the President is essential before a money bill is introduced in the Lok Sabha.
Financial powers:
(i) The annual budget of the country is presented in the Parliament in the name of the President.
(ii) All money bills also require his/her approval before introducing them in the Lok Sabha.
(iii) He/She has the power to appoint members of the Finance Commission. In case, certain extraordinary situations arise, the President can sanction money to the government out of Contigency Fund to meet the situation.
4. Explain the three situations under which the President of India can proclaim Emergency.
Answer 4 :- The President of India declares an Emergency in the following situations:
(i) If the security of the country is threatened by war or external aggression or internal armed rebellion, the President can declare a state of emergency for the whole country.
(ii) If the government of a state is not being run in accordance with the Constitution, the President can declare emergency in that state. It is also called the Imposition of the President’s Rule in a state.
(iii) When the financial stability of the country is threatened, the President can declare a state of financial emergency.
5. Explain the following terms: (a) Coalition Government (b) Impeachment (c) Collective Responsibility (d) Parliamentary Form of Government (e) Electoral College
Answer 5 :- (a) Coalition Government: It is a government formed by an alliance of two or more political parties, usually when no single party gets a clear majority in a legislature.
(b) Impeachment: The process to remove the President of India is called impeachment. If a President violates the Constitution, he/she can be removed from office by a resolution of impeachment which is passed by both the Houses of Parliament by two-third majority of the total membership.
(c) Collective Responsibility: This means that all the Ministers together are answerable to the Parliament for any decision taken by the Cabinet. All of them swim or sink together.
(d) Parliamentary Form of Government: The form of government which is answerable to the Parliament or the Union legislature.
(e) Electoral College: It consists of the elected members of the Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha and the Legislative Assemblies of the state.
DAV Public School Class 8th The Union Government: The Judiciary Question and Answers
Something to Know
A. Tickmark (✓) the correct option.
1. The Lok Adalat is generally presided over by—
Answer 1 :- (b) retired judge
2. Who among the following does not work under the Board of Revenue?
Answer 2 :- (c) Metropolitan Magistrate
3. A judge of the Supreme Court may continue to remain in office till the attainment of—
Answer 3 :- (d) 65 years
4. Which one of the following statements about Public Interest Litigation is false?
Answer 4 :- (b) It has proved to be a boon for the upper-middle-class people of India.
5. Which case related to the following subjects is a civil case?
Answer 5 :- (a) marriage
Answer:- 1. (b) 2. (c) 3. (d) 4. (b) 5. (a)
Fill in the blanks with right answer. .
1. The highest Revenue Court in the district is the Board of Revenue which deals with the cases of land revenue.
2. Any law declared unconstitutional, immediately ceases to remain in force.
3. The criminal cases begin with the lodging of a First Information Report.
4. Legal cases can be either civil or criminal in nature.
5. The Supreme Court is the guardian of the Indian Constitution.
C. Write True or False for the following statements.
Answer:- 1. True 2. False 3. True 4. False 5. False
D. Answer the following Questions in brief:-
1. What is meant by independence of judiciary? Give any two examples to prove that Indian Judiciary is independent.
Answer 1 :- Justice is possible only if the judiciary is independent, impartial and unbiased. The judiciary not only protects the rights of the citizens but also resolves various disputes arising out of civil cases, criminal cases and constitutional matters without any pressure from the executive or the legislature.
2. Differentiate between civil and criminal cases with the help of examples.
Answer 2 :- Civil cases: All the civil cases pertaining to property, contracts, agreements, landlord-tenant disputes, money, marriage disputes which do not originate in the High Court, are heard in the District Courts. The District Court is the highest civil court in a district.
Criminal cases: For criminal cases in a district, the highest court is the court of the Sessions Judge. It deals with matters like theft, murder, etc.
3. Describe the composition of Criminal Courts and Revenue Courts.
Answer 3 :- Criminal Courts: For criminal cases in a district, the highest court is the court of the Sessions Judge. Below this court, there are courts of Magistrate of First, Second and Third Class. In big cities like Delhi, Kolkata, first-class magistrates are called Metropolitan Magistrates.
Revenue Courts: The highest revenue court in a district is the Board of Revenue which deals with the cases of land revenue. Courts of Commissioner, Collector, Tehsildar and Assistant Tehsildar work under the Board of Revenue which hears the final appeals against the lower revenue courts.
4. What qualifications are required to be a judge of the Supreme Court? How can a judge of the Supreme Court be removed?
OR Mention any three qualifications required to be a judge of the Supreme Court. How are the judges of the Supreme Court appointed or removed if need be?
Answer 4 :- To be eligible to become a judge of the Supreme Court, a person must be:
(i) a citizen of India
(ii) a judge of the High Court/Courts for a minimum period of five years, or
(iii) a distinguished jurist in the opinion of the President of India. The Chief Justice and all other judges of the Supreme Court remain in office till they attain the age of 65 years. Once a judge is appointed, he/she cannot be removed from office under normal circumstances. He/She can be removed, only on grounds of proved misbehaviour or incapacity to discharge function, by the President on the basis of a resolution of impeachment passed by each House of the parliament by a special majority during the same session.
5. ‘India has a single unified and integrated judicial system.’ Explain.
Answer 5 :- It is a unique feature of our federal democratic setup. It has the power to supervise and control the working of the entire judicial system in India. It ensures justice to all. The Supreme Court is the highest judicial authority followed by the High Courts in the states and then the subordinate courts in every district. The lowest court in the judicial hierarchical order is the court of the magistrate. The lower courts are controlled and supervised by the High Courts. A judgement given by the lower court can be challenged in the higher court. Similarly, an individual can go to the Supreme Court of India to appeal against the judgement of a High Court. The law declared by the Supreme Court shall be binding on all courts within the territory of India.
E. Answer the following questions.
1. Briefly describe any five powers and functions of the Supreme Court of India.
Answer 1 :- The Supreme Court of India performs many important functions and exercises different types of jurisdiction, such as original, appellate, advisory and supervisory jurisdiction.
(i) Original Jurisdiction: There are certain cases that can only be decided by the Supreme Court. They have to originate in the Supreme Court. Among these are:
• disputes between the Union Government and one or more state governments.
• between the two or more states
• Inter-state water disputes regarding sharing of water and power.
(ii) Appellate Jurisdiction: This jurisdiction is exercised to hear appeals against the decisions of the High Courts and other courts regarding constitutional, civil and criminal cases. This jurisdiction is applicable to cases involving interpretation of the Constitution, cases sent by the High Courts and the criminal cases where a High Court changes the decision of a lower court and gives a death sentence. The Supreme Court can also review its own decisions taken earlier.
(iii) Advisory Jurisdiction: It covers Constitutional issues on matters of public importance if the President of India desires to obtain the opinion of the Supreme Court. However, any such opinion given by the Supreme Court is not binding on the President.
(iv) Supervisory Jurisdiction: The Supreme Court supervises the functioning of all the courts below it.
(v) Court of Record: The Supreme Court functions as the Court of Record under which the proceedings of the court are preserved. These records can be cited as precedents in future in all the courts in the country.
(vi) Protector of Fundamental Rights: The Supreme Court has the power to declare a law passed by the legislature null and void if it encroaches upon the Fundamental Rights of the people.
(vii) Guardian of the Constitution: The Supreme Court is the Guardian of our Constitution. So, the Court does not allow either the executive or the legislative to violate any provision of the Constitution. The Supreme Court alone has the authority to interpret the Constitution.
(vii) Power of Judicial Review: It is the power of the Supreme Court to review the laws enacted by the Parliament or the State Legislatures to ascertain whether they are in conformity with the provisions of the Constitution or not. Any law declared unconstitutional, immediately ceases to remain in force. In this way, the Apex Court protects the rights of the people and guards the Constitution. Judicial review is an important means of protecting and enforcing the rights of the people.
2. Explain the main powers and functions of the High Courts.
Answer 2 :- The main powers and functions of the High Courts are given below:
(i) Under its original jurisdiction, the High Court deals with cases involving a violation of Fundamental Rights, disputes related to the election of an MP or MLA where interpretation of the Constitution is required.
(ii) The High Court also deals with the cases pertaining to marriage, divorce, laws, wills of the deceased persons, etc.
(iii) The High Court also has the power of judicial review. It can transfer to itself those cases where the substantial question of law is involved and require interpretation of the Constitution.
(iv) The High Court controls and supervises the working of the Subordinate Courts in the state.
(v) Like the Supreme Court of India, the High Court is also a Court of Record. It has the power to punish for contempt of itself. All decisions of the High Court are binding on the Lower Courts. These decisions or judgements serve as laws and can be cited by the Lower Courts throughout the country.
3. State the significance of Public Interest Litigation in the Indian judicial system.
Answer 3 :- The concept of Public Interest Litigation was devised by the Supreme Court of India to enable the poor and illiterate, who are in the vast majority in our country, to seek justice speedily and comfortably. Now any person from the public, whether directly affected or not, may write an ordinary letter or even a postcard to draw the attention of the High Court or the Supreme Court towards any matter of serious public importance. If the court is convinced that the matter is of public interest, it will take up and decide the case. PIL has proven to be a boon for the common man and has set right a number of wrongs committed by an individual or society.
4. Explain the concept of Lok Adatats. Why are they called People’s Courts?
Answer 4 :- The process of seeking justice is time-consuming and expensive in our country. Besides, thousands of cases are lying pending in various courts. Lok Adalats have been established to simplify the legal procedures, reduce the cost of litigation and to provide speedy justice. Lok Adalats are normally presided over by a retired judge. The disputing parties plead their cases themselves. No advocate or pleader is allowed to argue the case. Even witnesses are not examined. Efforts are made to settle disputes through compromise, mutual agreement and on-the-spot decisions. Lok Adalats are called people’s courts because they are easily accessible to the common people.
5. Describe the composition of the High Court. Explain the qualifications, tenure and the method of removal of the High Court judges.
Answer 5 :- Composition: The High Court consists of a Chief Justice and some other judges. The number of judges varies from state to state, depending on its size and population. The Chief Justice of a High Court is appointed by the President of India in consultation with the Chief Justice of the Supreme Court and the Governor of the concerned state. Similarly, the other judges are also appointed by the President on the advice of the Chief Justice of India, the Governor of State and the Chief Justice of the High Court of the concerned state.
Qualifications: Any citizen of India who has been an advocate in one or more High Courts for at least 10 years or holder of a judicial office in Subordinate Courts for a period of 10 years, is eligible for appointment as judge in a High Court. Tenure and Removal: A judge may continue to remain in office till the attainment of 62 years of age. The judges of the High Court can be removed from office by the President of India in the same manner as the judges of the Supreme Court through impeachment.
Value Based Question
According to a recent report, Maharashtra is facing a drought-like situation as the underground water level has decreased alarmingly in many districts. People are facing water scarcity in these areas.
1. What can the citizens do to draw the attention of the Court to the problem of water scarcity?
Answer 1 :- Citizens can submit water scarcity related news and photographs of particular regions in the court. They can inform the court that many villages and cities in India are facing severe water shortages. Thousands of farmers have committed suicide in regions like Marathwada and Vidarbha of Maharashtra due to drought-like situations. If necessary steps are not taken immediately, then there will be further destruction. On the advice of the court, the government should formulate a plan to come up with a permanent solution of water scarcity.
2. Why is water conservation considered as the need of the hour? Explain.
Answer 2 :- Water supports all forms of life on the earth and is a very precious natural resource. It is useful in a number of ways, but rapid population growth has fast depleted the reservoirs of freshwater. Deforestation, construction of buildings, roads and industries have also depleted the underground water reserves. One of the significant challenges of the 21st century is access to an adequate supply of clean water. Thus, it is imperative that we manage our water resources carefully and conserve it for future use.
DAV Public School Class 8th Social Justice and the Marginalised Question and Answers
Something to Know
A. Tickmark (✓) the correct option.
1. Who among the following does not belong to economically and socially disadvantaged communities of India?
Answer 1 :- (d) traders
2. ‘Bishnois’, a tribal community lives in—
Answer 2 :- (b) Rajasthan
3. A traditional Islamic educational institution is called a—
Answer 3 :- (c) madarsa
4. Which one of the following factors does not make a successful democracy?
Answer 4 :- (a) biased public opinion
5. Which one of the following words does not find a mention in the Preamble of the Indian Constitution?
Answer 5 :- (c) Harmony
Fill in the blanks with right answer. .
1. India is a sovereign and secular democracy.
2. Economically and socially disadvantaged communities of India are known as marginalised groups.
3. The end of tribals’ traditional lifestyle had resulted in marginalisation and exploitation.
4. The idea behind the reservation in educational institutions is to increase the diversity of representation and to bring about social equality in India.
5. The better educated and wealthier sections of the Backward Classes are called the creamy layer
C. Match the following.
Answer:- 1. (d), 2. (a), 3. (e), 4. (b), 5. (c)
D. Answer the following Questions in brief:-
1. Mention any three elements which are essential for making a successful democracy.
Answer 1 :- Social justice, individual rights, equality of opportunity and public participation in decision-making, make a successful democracy.
2. Which communities come under Other Backward Classes (OBCs)? Who identified them and how?
Answer 2 :- The communities under OBCs mainly comprise of small cultivators, agricultural labourers, artisans, people engaged in weaving, fishing, construction work, etc.
They were listed as OBC on the recommendation of the Second Backward Classes Commission under the Chairmanship of B.P. Mandal in 1978.
3. Explain the term ‘Creamy layer’. Why should they be not given benefit of reservation?
Answer 3 :- The term ‘Creamy layer’ is used for the relatively wealthier and better-educated members of the Backward Classes. It is argued that they should not continue to avail the benefits of reservation as they are rich and educated.
4. Highlight two values that we can learn from the Bishnois with respect to the environment.
Answer 4 :- The Bishnoi conservationists take care of nature and live in harmony with it, instead of exploiting it. They have contributed more to the environment and wildlife protection than the entire country put together.
5. Why was the provision of reservation included in the Indian Constitution? Who are the beneficiaries of this policy and how?
Answer 5 :- The Constitution framers included the provision of reservation to uplift historically oppressed and marginalised sections of society, who were denied respect and equality. Scheduled Castes, Scheduled Tribes and OBCs are the beneficiaries of this policy. Under this policy, a percentage of seats are reserved in the public sector units, Union and State Civil Services, Union and State departments and in all public and private educational institutions.
E. Answer the following questions.
1. Compare the conditions of the Adivasis of India during pre and post-independence era.
Answer 1 :- Adivasi groups have always been discriminated in the pre and post-independence era. The forests in which the Adivasis lived were taken away from them in the name of development during the British period. As a result, they became landless and homeless. Many Adivasis protests and revolts occurred during the colonial era against exploitation. But they were quickly suppressed by the British in a merciless manner to discourage any future revolts. Even in the post-independence era, Adivasi groups faced discrimination at the hands of the government, the industrialists and many other powerful forces. The forests in which they lived were cleared gradually for timber, agriculture, mining projects or for wildlife sanctuaries, national parks, etc. This has resulted in problems, such as poverty, illiteracy, indebtedness, bondage, exploitation, disease and unemployment, etc., among the tribals.
2. The Bishnoi conservationists take care of nature and grow with it, instead of exploiting it.’ Explain the statement.
Answer 2 :- For the Bishnois, a tribal community of Rajasthan, the preservation of animals and vegetation has been a religion to them since the fifteenth century. Their spiritual mentor, Jambeshwarji formulated 29 tenets – Bis (twenty) + noi (nine). This is the origin of their name. The tenets are related to personal hygiene, maintaining good basic health, healthy social behaviour and worship of God. Their religion bans animal killing, felling green trees and directs them to protect life in all forms. The Bishnoi conservationists take care of nature and live in harmony with it, instead of exploiting it. They have contributed more to the environment and wildlife protection than the entire country put together.
3. Explain the term ‘minorities’. Why do they lag behind the majority community, both educationally and economically? How can they get their rightful place in society?
Answer 3 :- On the basis of race, religion or language, the number of Muslims, Christians, Sikhs, Buddhists, Jains, Parsis, Anglo-Indians is much less than the majority community and hence, they are known as minorities. Muslims are the largest single minority community in India. Minorities lag behind the majority community, both educationally and economically. A large part of the Muslim population suffers from backwardness due to abstaining from mainstream education and opting for traditional education, which is primarily religious. Many Muslim parents still prefer to send their children to a traditional Islamic educational institution, called madarsa, and not for modem education.
The government has launched many schemes for their welfare but they are disenchanted with them as the schemes have provided more money-making opportunities to the rich and higher castes. Sometimes, the best of the economic opportunities are reserved for the majority while the minorities are forced to continue with their hereditary occupations of menial jobs which paid them very little money. The minorities have to be provided their rightful place. They have to be protected from being dominated as well as discriminated. Sometimes a minority community may feel threatened by the majority community, which gives rise to insecurity and disharmony. The development can continue only when each and every Indian joins hands and the national interest wins over individual interest. Keeping this in mind—
(i) The Ministry of Minority Affairs has launched several schemes for the welfare of the minorities and safeguards their rights.
(ii) Fundamental Rights such as Right to Freedom of Religion and Cultural and Educational Rights protect the minorities and give them the right to preserve their religion, culture and language.
4. Suggest any five measures that can be taken for the upliftment of the downtrodden in a democracy.
Answer 4 :- To provide social justice and to end inequalities in society the following measures can be taken:
(i) Providing facilities for free and quality education.
(ii) Providing an administration free of corruption.
(iii) Providing financial help in the form of loans and grants.
(iv) Setting up an efficient healthcare system for the masses.
(v) Setting up different welfare departments for them.
(vi) Increasing employment opportunities.
5. What is meant by political safeguards? Who are the beneficiaries of this policy? How far is such a safeguard justified?
Answer:- The underprivileged and marginalised sections of society need to be given equal opportunity in nation-building activities. So reserving seats for them in legislatures acts as a safeguard of their political rights. As a political safeguard, seats in the Lok Sabha, State Assemblies, Panchayats and Municipalities are reserved for the Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes in proportion to their population. But still, they are deprived of the benefits of development and continue to suffer due to social and educational backwardness. They cannot be isolated and forced to live on the fringes. On the other hand, minorities have to cooperate and live in harmony. They need to emphasise that they are a part of the whole. This will strengthen the composite culture of India.
DAV Public School Class 8th Safeguarding the Marginalised Social Science Question and Answers
Something to do.
A. Tickmark (✓) the correct option.
1. Manual Scavenging has been declared illegal as it violates—
Answer 1 :- (c) Right against Exploitation
2. When was Swachh Bharat Mission launched?
Answer 2 :- (d) October 2, 2014
3. Which out of the following is true about the Directive Principles of State Policy?
Answer 3 :- (a) They are not enforceable by law.
4. Which one of the following Fundamental Rights has special provisions for the minorities?
Answer 4 :- (b) Culture and Educational Rights
5. Identify the scheme under which a person can open a bank account without depositing any money.
Answer 5 :- (b) PMJDY
B. Fill in the blanks with right answer. .
1. Untouchability is an inhuman product of the caste system.
2. PMAY (Pradhan Mantri Awas Yojana) is a welfare housing scheme launched by the Central Government.
3. The important challenges we face today are the unevenness of our growth processes and the inequalities that remain in our social institutions.
4. PMSBY (Pradhan Mantri Suraksha Bima Yojana) is an initiative to provide insurance benefits to the rural population.
5. Manual scavenging violates the Fundamental Right against exploitation and discrimination.
C. Write True and False for the following statements.
1. The State cannot make special provisions for the backward classes.
2. The practice of untouchability has been abolished under the Right to Equality.
3. Sukanya Samriddhi Yojana provides financial empowerment to the girl child.
4. Minorities in India are not protected by the Constitution.
5. The Directive Principles of State Policy promote the welfare of the people.
Answer:- 1. False 2. True 3. True 4. False 5. True
D. Answer the following Questions in brief:-
1. What is meant by marginalisation? Who are the marginalised groups in India?
Answer 1 :- Marginalisation means the social process of discriminating and isolating an individual or a group to a lower or an outer edge and treating them as ‘inferiors’. In most cases, the deprivation leads to impoverishment and unemployment. The marginalized groups refer to Scheduled Castes, Scheduled Tribes, Other Backward Class,es and many minority groups who suffer from backwardness.
2. Explain the meaning of Protective Discrimination? How does it ensure socio-economic justice to the deprived section of society?
Answer 2 :- Protective Discrimination means that the State can make special provisions to protect the interest of the socially and economically backward classes. The government can implement special schemes and measures so that they can get opportunity to occupy better socio-economic positions, at par with the persons of other castes and forge new social relations with others, irrespective of caste consideration.
3. Explain the main provisions of the Cultural and Educational Rights.
Answer 3 :- Cultural and Educational Rights: The Constitution has provisions that safeguard the Cultural and Educational Rights of minorities. Minorities are free to practice their cultural aspects like festivals and other rituals. They can also run their own educational institutions for the betterment of their community members.
4. Which three Constitutional Provisions of the Indian Constitution safeguard the marginalized in India?
Answer 4 :- (1) Right to Equality
(2) Right against Exploitation
(3) Right to Freedom of Religion and Cultural and Educational Rights.
5. How do Directive Principles of State Policy promote the welfare of all sections of society? Give any three examples.
Answer 5 :- The Directive Principles of State Policy lay down major fundamentals in the governance of the country. (i) They direct the states to apply these principles while making laws to secure a social order for the promotion of the welfare of the people. (ii) They aim to minimize the inequalities in income and eliminate inequalities of status. (iii) They ensure that the material resources of the country are utilized for the common good.
E. Answer the following questions.
1. Describe any five welfare schemes launched by the Government of India for the upliftment of the needy and the downtrodden.
Answer 1 :- Five welfare schemes launched by the Government of India are as follows:
(i) Pradhan Mantri Awas Yojana (PMAY): It is primarily a welfare housing scheme launched by the Central Government. The houses would be distributed to the needy sections of society and a subsidy on loan would be provided by the Central Government, thereby making affordable housing for the economically weaker sections of the country. Special preference would be given to senior citizens, women, and SCs/STs in the allotment of these houses.
(ii) Pradhan Mantri Jan Dhan Yojana (PMJDY): Under the PMJDY, any individual above the age of 10 years and does not have a bank account can open a bank account without depositing any money. The scheme targeted the people living Below Poverty Line (BPL) but is beneficial to everyone, who does not have a bank account.
(iii) Stand-Up India Scheme: The scheme aims to promote entrepreneurship among SCs/STs and women. It provides a composite loan for setting up any new enterprise between 10 lakh rupees and up to one crore.
(iv) Pradhan Mantri Garib Kalyan Yojana (PMGKY): Under this Income Declaration scheme, the government would mobilize the money for utilising and meeting the welfare needs of the poor population.
(v) Sukanya Samriddhi Yojana (SSY): It lays special emphasis on the financial empowerment of the girl child. Through this scheme, the parents of any girl child below 10 years can open a saving account for their daughter and operate it till she attains the age of 21 years. After that time, they can withdraw the money and use it for their marriage or higher education. The scheme offers a high rate of return even much higher than PPF (Public Provident Fund).
2. What does the Swachh Bharat Abhiyan aim at? How far has it been successful so far? List any five tasks related to cleanliness which the students must undertake.
Answer 2 :- Swachh Bharat Abhiyan aims to achieve the following:
1. To construct toilets.
2. To eradicate manual scavenging.
3. To change people’s attitudes to sanitation and create awareness.
Swachh Bharat Mission can only be made successful if manual scavenging in the states is completely eliminated and replaced with modern toilets. The progressive rehabilitation of those dependent on scavenging has to be planned simultaneously through skill development programs so that they get suitably rehabilitated. Moreover, Swachh Bharat Mission will succeed only when each and every Indian become responsible for creating, managing waste, and not littering public places. Students must undertake the following tasks:
(i) Avoid littering in public places.
(ii) Keep their schools and homes clean.
(iii) Throw garbage in proper places.
(iv) Avoid throwing rubbish into rivers.
(v) Promote campaign to end open defecation.
3. Highlight any five special measures taken by the Government of India for the upliftment of Backward Classes.
Answer 3 :- The Government of India has taken several special measures for the upliftment of backward classes:
(i) The practice of untouchability has been abolished under the Right to Equality.
(ii) There are special provisions like Protective Discrimination. It means that the state can make special provisions to protect the interest of the socially and economically backward classes.
(iii) The government can implement special schemes and measures so that they can get opportunity to occupy better socio-economic positions at par with the persons of other castes and forge new social relations with others, irrespective of caste consideration.
(iv) The Directive Principles of State Policy lay down important fundamentals in the governance of the country. They direct the states to apply these principles while making laws to secure a social order for the promotion of the welfare of the people. They aim to minimise the inequalities in income and eliminate inequalities of status.
(v) The reservation policy of the Government of India is one of the special measures to provide social justice to all and to end inequalities in our society. Under this policy, seats are reserved for SC/ST/OBC in the legislatures, government services, schools, colleges, etc.
4. Explain the main provisions of Prevention of Atrocities Act 1989 for the Scheduled Castes and the Scheduled Tribes. List any six offences which are punishable under this Act.
Answer 4 :- This Act prevents offences of atrocities against the members of SC/ ST. It contains a long list of offences and seeks to punish the offenders if proved guilty:
(i) Forcing a member of SC/ST to drink or eat any inedible or obnoxious substance.
(ii) Insulting or annoying any member of a SC/ST. (iii) Wrongfully dispossessing a member of a SC/ST from his land. (iv Compelling to do ‘begar’ or bonded labour.
(iv) Force anyone not to vote or to vote for a particular candidate.
(v) Use of force on any woman belonging to a SC/ST.
(vi) Committing the mischief by fire.
(vii) Causing destruction of a building that is ordinarily used as a place of worship or human dwelling.
5. How can we ensure that the marginalised and weaker section of society equally benefited from the Government programmes? Suggest any five measures.
Answer 5 :- (i) The marginalised and weaker section of society should be given enough opportunities to join the mainstream of the country. This can be possible only if their health and education are given top priority.
(ii) We must ensure that the interests of Scheduled Castes, Scheduled Tribes, Backward Classes, Minorities, women and children are protected and justice is provided to them.
(iii) The abolition of untouchability by the Constitution means that no one can henceforth prevent Dalits from educating themselves, entering temples, using public facilities, etc. This should be made effective so that they really enjoy the benefits.
(iv) The Government of India should make all efforts to eradicate poverty, ignorance and disease which are deeply rooted in our societies, especially among the marginalised and weaker sections of society.
(v) Employment opportunities should be increased for them in order to empower them in the real sense.
Value Based Question
1.Manual scavengers have to remove human excreta from several homes every day. The government declaration of 100% Individual Household Latrine Coverage in the States differs from the ground reality. The fact remains that employing scavengers and constructing dry latrines continue in many parts of India inspite of the fact that this offence invites imprisonment up to one year and a fine of Rs. 2000. Study carefully the above given paragraph and answer the following questions: 1. What stringent measures can be taken to implement the law?
Answer 1 :- Some of the stringent measures:
(i) The government should prohibit the practice of open defecation and manual scavenging. The Supreme Court should order the Central and State government to verify the fact and take necessary steps against those who violate this law.
(ii) Education is the key to enlightenment and hence not only should the Dalits be educated but the upper caste mindset should also be encouraged to change these things and to stop manual scavenging and dry latrines construction.
2. In your opinion, should the manual scavengers be allowed to continue to earn their livelihood or banned? Justify your answer with three suitable arguments.
Answer 2 :- Manual scavenging should be banned as it is disgraceful practice. Manual scavengers are often given orders and that too in a very harsh and ruthless tone. They are neither paid well nor fed well, but they are helpless as they are poor. The government should provide them education and training so that they can do other valuable work to earn their livelihood. Everyone is equal and deserves to be treated with dignity.
Map Skill
Following is the list of Indian cities that have fared well on cleanliness parameters under the Swachh Bharat Mission. Show these cities on an outline political map of India. Rank Top 5 Cities/States I Indore (MP) II Bhopal (MP) III Vishakhapatnam (AP) IV Surat (Gujarat) V Mysore (Karnataka)
Ans.
